South Australia Work Health and Safety Regulations 2012 under the Work Health and Safety Act 2012 Contents Chapter 1—Preliminary Part 1—Introductory matters 1 Short title 3 Authorising provisions 4 Revocation 5 Definitions 6 Determination of safety management system 7 Meaning of person conducting a business or undertaking: persons excluded 8 Meaning of supply 8A Meaning of emergency services worker 8B Meaning of dangerous goods 8C Meaning of high risk plant 8D Infringement offences 9 Provisions linked to health and safety duties in Act Part 2—Application 10 Application of Act to dangerous goods and high risk plant 11 Application of these regulations 12 Assessment of risk in relation to a class of hazards, tasks, circumstances or things Part 3—Incorporated documents 13 Documents incorporated as in force when incorporated 14 Inconsistencies between provisions 15 References to standards Chapter 2—Representation and participation Part 1—Representation Division 1—Work groups 16 Negotiations for and determination of work groups 17 Matters to be taken into account in negotiations Division 2—Health and safety representatives 18 Procedures for election of health and safety representatives 19 Person conducting business or undertaking must not delay election 20 Removal of health and safety representatives 21 Training for health and safety representatives Part 2—Issue resolution 22 Agreed procedure—minimum requirements 23 Default procedure Part 3—Cessation of unsafe work 24 Continuity of engagement of worker Part 4—Workplace entry by WHS entry permit holders 25 Training requirements for WHS entry permits 26 Form of WHS entry permit 27 Notice of entry—general 28 Additional requirements—entry under section 117 29 Additional requirements—entry under section 120 30 Additional requirements—entry under section 121 31 Register of WHS entry permit holders Chapter 3—General risk and workplace management Part 1—Managing risks to health and safety 32 Application of Chapter 3 Part 1 33 Specific requirements must be complied with 34 Duty to identify hazards 35 Managing risks to health and safety 36 Hierarchy of control measures 37 Maintenance of control measures 38 Review of control measures Part 2—General workplace management Division 1—Information, training and instruction 39 Provision of information, training and instruction Division 2—General working environment 40 Duty in relation to general workplace facilities 41 Duty to provide and maintain adequate and accessible facilities Division 3—First aid 42 Duty to provide first aid Division 4—Emergency plans 43 Duty to prepare, maintain and implement emergency plan Division 5—Personal protective equipment 44 Provision to workers and use of personal protective equipment 45 Personal protective equipment used by other persons 46 Duties of worker 47 Duty of person other than worker Division 6—Remote or isolated work 48 Remote or isolated work Division 7—Managing risks from airborne contaminants 49 Ensuring exposure standards for substances and mixtures not exceeded 50 Monitoring airborne contaminant levels Division 8—Hazardous atmospheres 51 Managing risks to health and safety 52 Ignition sources Division 9—Storage of flammable or combustible substances 53 Flammable and combustible material not to be accumulated Division 10—Falling objects 54 Management of risk of falling objects 55 Minimising risk associated with falling objects Division 11—Psychosocial risks 55A Meaning of psychosocial hazard 55B Meaning of psychosocial risk 55C Managing psychosocial risks 55D Control measures Chapter 4—Hazardous work Part 1—Noise 56 Meaning of exposure standard for noise 57 Managing risk of hearing loss from noise 58 Audiometric testing 59 Duties of designers, manufacturers, importers and suppliers of plant Part 2—Hazardous manual tasks 60 Managing risks to health and safety 61 Duties of designers, manufacturers, importers and suppliers of plant or structures Part 3—Confined spaces Division 1—Preliminary 62 Confined spaces to which this Part applies 63 Application to emergency service workers Division 2—Duties of designer, manufacturer, importer, supplier, installer and constructor of plant or structure 64 Duty to eliminate or minimise risk Division 3—Duties of person conducting business or undertaking 65 Entry into confined space must comply with this Division 66 Managing risks to health and safety 67 Confined space entry permit 68 Signage 69 Communication and safety monitoring 70 Specific control—connected plant and services 71 Specific control—atmosphere 72 Specific control—flammable gases and vapours 73 Specific control—fire and explosion 74 Emergency procedures 75 Personal protective equipment in emergencies 76 Information, training and instruction for workers 77 Confined space entry permit and risk assessment must be kept Part 4—Falls 78 Management of risk of fall 79 Specific requirements to minimise risk of fall 80 Emergency and rescue procedures Part 5—High risk work Division 1—Licensing of high risk work Subdivision 1—Requirement to be licensed 81 Licence required to carry out high risk work 82 Exceptions 83 Recognition of high risk work licences in other jurisdictions 84 Duty of person conducting business or undertaking to ensure direct supervision 85 Evidence of licence—duty of person conducting business or undertaking Subdivision 2—Licensing process 86 Who may apply for a licence 87 Application for high risk work licence 88 Additional information 89 Decision on application 90 Matters to be taken into account 91 Refusal to grant high risk work licence—process 91A Conditions of licence 92 Duration of licence 93 Licence document 94 Licence document to be available 95 Reassessment of competency of licence holder Subdivision 3—Amendment of licence document 96 Notice of change of address 97 Licence holder to return licence 98 Replacement licence document 99 Voluntary surrender of licence Subdivision 4—Renewal of high risk work licence 100 Regulator may renew licence 101 Application for renewal 102 Licence continues in force until application is decided 103 Renewal of expired licence 104 Provisions relating to renewal of licence 105 Status of licence during review Subdivision 5—Suspension and cancellation of high risk work licence 106 Suspension or cancellation of licence 107 Matters taken into account 108 Notice to and submissions by licence holder 109 Notice of decision 110 Immediate suspension 111 Licence holder to return licence document 112 Regulator to return licence document after suspension Division 2—Accreditation of assessors Subdivision 1—Requirement to be accredited 113 Accreditation required to assess competency for high risk work licence 114 Accredited assessor must act in accordance with accreditation Subdivision 2—Accreditation process 115 Regulator may accredit assessors 116 Application for accreditation 117 Additional information 118 Decision on application 119 Matters to be taken into account 120 Refusal to grant accreditation—process 121 Conditions of accreditation 122 Duration of accreditation 123 Accreditation document 124 Accreditation document to be available Subdivision 3—Amendment of accreditation document 125 Changes to information 126 Accredited assessor to return accreditation document 127 Replacement accreditation document 128 Voluntary surrender of accreditation Subdivision 4—Renewal of accreditation 129 Regulator may renew accreditation 130 Application for renewal 131 Accreditation continues in force until application is decided 132 Provisions relating to application Subdivision 5—Suspension and cancellation 133 Regulator may suspend or cancel accreditation 134 Suspension or cancellation of accreditation 135 Matters to be taken into account 136 Notice to and submissions by accredited assessor 137 Notice of decision 138 Immediate suspension 139 Accredited assessor to return accreditation document 140 Regulator to return accreditation document after suspension Subdivision 6—Agreements with RTOs 141 Regulator may enter into agreement with RTO Part 6—Demolition work Division 1—Notice of demolition work 142 Notice of demolition work Division 2—Approval to carry out demolition work 143 Demolition work required to be licensed 143A Approval to carry out certain demolition work Part 7—General electrical safety in workplaces and energised electrical work Division 1—Preliminary 144 Meaning of electrical equipment 145 Meaning of electrical installation 146 Meaning of electrical work Division 2—General risk management 147 Risk management Division 3—Electrical equipment and electrical installations 148 Electrical equipment and electrical installations to which this Division applies 149 Unsafe electrical equipment 150 Inspection and testing of electrical equipment 151 Untested electrical equipment not to be used Division 4—Electrical work on energised electrical equipment 152 Application of Division 4 153 Persons conducting a business or undertaking to which this Division applies 154 Electrical work on energised electrical equipment—prohibited 155 Duty to determine whether equipment is energised 156 De-energised equipment must not be inadvertently re‑energised 157 Electrical work on energised electrical equipment—when permitted 158 Preliminary steps 159 Unauthorised access to equipment being worked on 160 Contact with equipment being worked on 161 How the work is to be carried out 162 Record keeping Division 5—Electrical equipment and installations and construction work—additional duties 163 Duty of person conducting business or undertaking Division 6—Residual current devices 164 Use of socket outlets in hostile operating environment 165 Testing of residual current devices Division 7—Overhead and underground electric lines 166 Duty of person conducting a business or undertaking Part 8—Diving work Division 1—Preliminary 167 Purpose of Chapter 4 Part 8 Division 2—General diving work—Fitness and competence of worker 168 Person conducting business or undertaking must ensure fitness of workers 169 Certificate of medical fitness 170 Duty to keep certificate of medical fitness 171 Competence of worker—general diving work—qualifications 171A Competence of worker—general diving work—knowledge and skill 172 Competence of worker—incidental diving work 173 Competence of worker—limited scientific diving work 174 Competence of competent person supervising general diving work 175 Evidence of competence—duty of person conducting business or undertaking Division 3—Managing risks—general diving work 176 Management of risks to health and safety 177 Appointment of competent person to supervise diving work 178 Additional control—dive plan 179 Dive plan must be complied with 180 Additional control—dive safety log to be kept 181 Use of dive safety log 182 Record keeping Division 4—High risk diving work 183 Duties of person conducting business or undertaking 184 Duty of worker—competence Chapter 5—Plant and structures Part 1—General duties for plant and structures Division 1—Preliminary 185 Application of Chapter 5 Part 1 to plant 186 Application of Chapter 5 Part 1 to structures Division 2—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that design plant 187 Provision of information to manufacturer 188 Hazard identified in design during manufacture 189 Guarding 190 Operational controls 191 Emergency stop controls 192 Warning devices Division 3—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that manufacture plant 193 Control of risk 194 Guarding 195 Information must be obtained and provided Division 4—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that import plant 196 Information to be obtained and provided by importer 197 Control of risk Division 5—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that supply plant 198 Information to be obtained and provided by supplier 199 Supply of second‑hand plant—duties of supplier 200 Second‑hand plant to be used for scrap or spare parts Division 6—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that install, construct or commission plant or structures 201 Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that install, construct or commission plant 202 Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that install, construct or commission structures Division 7—General duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking involving the management or control of plant Subdivision 1—Management of risks 203 Management of risks to health and safety Subdivision 2—Additional control measures for general plant 204 Control of risks arising from installation or commissioning 205 Preventing unauthorised alterations to or interference with plant 206 Proper use of plant and controls 207 Plant not in use 208 Guarding 209 Guarding and insulation from heat and cold 210 Operational controls 211 Emergency stops 212 Warning devices 213 Maintenance and inspection of plant Subdivision 3—Additional control measures for certain plant 214 Powered mobile plant—general control of risk 215 Powered mobile plant—specific control measures 216 Roll‑over protection on tractors 218 Industrial lift trucks 219 Plant that lifts or suspends loads 220 Exception—Plant not specifically designed to lift or suspend a person 221 Plant used in connection with tree lopping 222 Industrial robots 223 Lasers 224 Pressure equipment 225 Scaffolds 226 Plant with presence‑sensing safeguarding system—records Part 2—Additional duties relating to registered plant and plant designs Division 1—Application of Chapter 5 Part 2 227 Application of Chapter 5 Part 2 Division 2—Duty of person conducting a business or undertaking who designs plant to record plant design 228 Records and information 229 Record of standards or engineering principles used 230 Records to be available for inspection Division 3—Duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking 231 Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that manufacture plant 232 Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that import plant 233 Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that supply plant 234 Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that commission plant Division 4—Duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking involving the management or control of plant Subdivision 1—Control measures for registered plant 235 Major inspection of registered mobile cranes and tower cranes 236 Lifts 237 Records of plant Subdivision 2—Control measures for amusement devices and passenger ropeways 238 Operation of amusement devices and passenger ropeways 239 Storage of amusement devices and passenger ropeways 240 Maintenance, inspection and testing of amusement devices and passenger ropeways 241 Annual inspection of amusement devices and passenger ropeways 242 Log book and manuals for amusement devices Part 3—Registration of plant designs and items of plant Division 1—Plant designs to be registered 243 Plant design to be registered 244 Altered plant designs to be registered 245 Recognition of designs registered by corresponding regulator Division 2—Items of plant to be registered 246 Items of plant to be registered 247 Recognition of plant registered by corresponding regulator Division 3—Registration process for plant designs 248 Application of Division 3 249 Who can apply to register a plant design 250 Application for registration 251 Design verification statement 252 Who can be the design verifier 253 Duty of design verifier 254 Design verification statements not to be made in certain circumstances 255 Additional information 256 Decision on application 257 Refusal of registration—process 258 Conditions of registration 259 Duration of registration of plant design 260 Plant design registration number 261 Registration document 262 Registration document to be available 263 Disclosure of design information Division 4—Registration process for an item of plant 264 Application of Division 4 265 Who can apply to register an item of plant 266 Application for registration 267 When is a person competent to inspect plant 268 Additional information 269 Decision on application 270 Refusal of registration—process 271 Conditions of registration 272 Duration of registration 273 Plant registration number 274 Registration document 275 Registration document to be available 276 Regulator may renew registration 277 Application for renewal 278 Registration continues in force until application is decided 279 Decision on application 280 Status of registration during review Division 5—Changes to registration and registration documents 281 Application of Division 282 Changes to information 283 Amendment of registration imposed by regulator 284 Amendment on application by registration holder 285 Minor corrections to registration 286 Regulator to give amended registration document 287 Registration holder to return registration document 288 Replacement registration document Division 6—Cancellation of registration 288A Application of Division 288B Regulator may cancel registration 288C Cancellation process 288D Registration holder to return registration document Chapter 6—Construction work Part 1—Preliminary 289 Meaning of construction work 290 Meaning of structure 291 Meaning of high risk construction work 292 Meaning of construction project 293 Meaning of principal contractor Part 2—Duties of designer of structure and person who commissions construction work 294 Person who commissions work must consult with designer 295 Designer must give safety report to person who commissions design 296 Person who commissions project must give information to principal contractor Part 3—Duties of person conducting business or undertaking Division 1—General 297 Management of risks to health and safety 298 Security of workplace Division 2—High risk construction work—safe work method statements 299 Safe work method statement required for high risk construction work 300 Compliance with safe work method statement 301 Safe work method statement—copy to be given to principal contractor 302 Review of safe work method statement 303 Safe work method statement must be kept Division 3—Excavation work 304 Excavation work—underground essential services information 305 Management of risks to health and safety associated with excavation work 306 Additional controls—trenches Part 4—Additional duties of principal contractor 307 Application of Chapter 6 Part 4 308 Specific control measure—signage identifying principal contractor 309 WHS management plan—preparation 310 WHS management plan—duty to inform 311 WHS management plan—review 312 High risk construction work—safe work method statements 313 Copy of WHS management plan must be kept 314 Further health and safety duties—specific regulations 315 Further health and safety duties—specific risks Part 5—General construction induction training Division 1—General construction induction training requirements 316 Duty to provide general construction induction training 317 Duty to ensure worker has been trained 318 Recognition of general construction induction training cards issued in other jurisdictions Division 2—General construction induction training cards 319 Issue of card 320 Content of card 321 Replacement card 322 Refusal to issue or replace card 323 Cancellation of card—grounds 324 Cancellation of card—process 325 RTO may enter agreement to issue cards Division 3—Duties of workers 326 Duties of workers 327 Alteration of general construction induction training card Chapter 7—Hazardous chemicals Part 1—Hazardous chemicals Division 1—Application of Chapter 7 Part 1 328 Application of Chapter 7 Part 1 Division 2—Obligations relating to safety data sheets and other matters Subdivision 1—Obligations of manufacturers and importers 329 Classification of hazardous chemicals 330 Manufacturer or importer to prepare and provide safety data sheets 331 Safety data sheets—research chemical, waste product or sample for analysis 332 Emergency disclosure of chemical identities to registered medical practitioner 333 Emergency disclosure of chemical identities to emergency service worker 334 Packing hazardous chemicals 335 Labelling hazardous chemicals Subdivision 2—Obligations of suppliers 336 Restriction on age of person who can supply hazardous chemicals 337 Retailer or supplier packing hazardous chemicals 338 Supplier labelling hazardous chemicals 339 Supplier to provide safety data sheets 340 Supply of prohibited and restricted carcinogens Subdivision 3—Obligations of persons conducting businesses or undertakings 341 Labelling hazardous chemicals—general requirement 342 Labelling hazardous chemicals—containers 343 Labelling hazardous chemicals—pipe work 344 Person conducting business or undertaking to obtain and give access to safety data sheets 345 Changes to safety data sheets Division 3—Register and manifest of hazardous chemicals Subdivision 1—Hazardous chemicals register 346 Hazardous chemicals register Subdivision 2—Manifest of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals 347 Manifest of hazardous chemicals Division 4—Placards 349 Outer warning placards—requirement to display 350 Placard—requirement to display Division 5—Control of risk—obligations of persons conducting businesses or undertakings Subdivision 1—General obligations relating to management of risk 351 Management of risks to health or safety 352 Review of control measures 353 Safety signs 354 Identification of risk of physical or chemical reaction 355 Specific control—fire and explosion 356 Keeping hazardous chemicals stable Subdivision 2—Spills and damage 357 Containing and managing spills 358 Protecting hazardous chemicals from damage Subdivision 3—Emergency plans and safety equipment 359 Fire protection and firefighting equipment 360 Emergency equipment 361 Emergency plans 362 Safety equipment Subdivision 4—Storage and handling systems 363 Control of risks from storage or handling systems 364 Containers for hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored in bulk 365 Stopping use and disposing of handling systems 366 Stopping use of underground storage and handling systems 367 Notification of abandoned tank Division 6—Health monitoring 368 Duty to provide health monitoring 369 Duty to inform of health monitoring 370 Duty to ensure that appropriate health monitoring is provided 371 Duty to ensure health monitoring is supervised by registered medical practitioner with experience 372 Duty to pay costs of health monitoring 373 Information that must be provided to registered medical practitioner 374 Duty to obtain health monitoring report 375 Duty to give health monitoring report to worker 376 Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator 377 Duty to give health monitoring report to relevant persons conducting businesses or undertakings 378 Health monitoring records Division 7—Induction, information, training and supervision 379 Duty to provide supervision Division 8—Prohibition, authorisation and restricted use 380 Using, handling and storing prohibited carcinogens 381 Using, handling and storing restricted carcinogens 382 Using, handling and storing restricted hazardous chemicals 383 Application for authorisation to use, handle or store prohibited and restricted carcinogens 384 Authorisation to use, handle or store prohibited carcinogens and restricted carcinogens 385 Changes to information in application to be reported 386 Regulator may cancel authorisation 387 Statement of exposure to be given to workers 388 Records to be kept Division 9—Pipelines 389 Management of risk by pipeline owner 390 Pipeline builder's duties 391 Management of risks to health and safety by pipeline operator Part 2—Lead Division 1—Lead process 392 Meaning of lead process 393 Regulator may decide lead process 394 Meaning of lead risk work 395 Duty to give information about health risks of lead process Division 2—Control of risk 396 Containment of lead contamination 397 Cleaning methods 398 Prohibition on eating, drinking and smoking 399 Provision of changing and washing facilities 400 Laundering, disposal and removal of personal protective equipment 401 Review of control measures Division 3—Lead risk work 402 Identifying lead risk work 403 Notification of lead risk work 404 Changes to information in notification of lead risk work Division 4—Health monitoring 405 Duty to provide health monitoring before first commencing lead risk work 406 Duty to ensure that appropriate health monitoring is provided 407 Frequency of biological monitoring 408 Duty to ensure health monitoring is supervised by registered medical practitioner with relevant experience 409 Duty to pay costs of health monitoring 410 Information that must be provided to registered medical practitioner 411 Duty to obtain health monitoring report 412 Duty to give health monitoring report to worker 413 Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator 414 Duty to give health monitoring report to relevant persons conducting businesses or undertakings 415 Removal of worker from lead risk work 416 Duty to ensure medical examination if worker removed from lead risk work 417 Return to lead risk work after removal 418 Health monitoring records Chapter 8—Asbestos Part 1—Prohibitions and authorised conduct 419 Work involving asbestos or ACM—prohibitions and exceptions Part 2—General duty 420 Exposure to airborne asbestos at workplace Part 3—Management of asbestos and associated risks 421 Application of Chapter 8 Part 3 422 Asbestos to be identified or assumed at workplace 423 Analysis of sample 424 Presence and location of asbestos to be indicated 425 Asbestos register 426 Review of asbestos register 427 Access to asbestos register 428 Transfer of asbestos register by person relinquishing management or control 429 Asbestos management plan 430 Review of asbestos management plan Part 4—Management of naturally occurring asbestos 431 Naturally occurring asbestos 432 Asbestos management plan 433 Review of asbestos management plan 434 Training in relation to naturally occurring asbestos Part 5—Asbestos at the workplace Division 1—Health monitoring 435 Duty to provide health monitoring 436 Duty to ensure that appropriate health monitoring is provided 437 Duty to ensure health monitoring is supervised by registered medical practitioner with relevant experience 438 Duty to pay costs of health monitoring 439 Information that must be provided to registered medical practitioner 440 Duty to obtain health monitoring report 441 Duty to give health monitoring report to worker 442 Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator 443 Duty to give health monitoring report to relevant persons conducting businesses or undertakings 444 Health monitoring records Division 2—Training 445 Duty to train workers about asbestos Division 3—Control on use of certain equipment 446 Duty to limit use of equipment Part 6—Demolition and refurbishment 447 Application—Chapter 8 Part 6 448 Review of asbestos register 449 Duty to give asbestos register to person conducting business or undertaking of demolition or refurbishment 450 Duty to obtain asbestos register 451 Determining presence of asbestos or ACM 452 Identification and removal of asbestos before demolition 453 Identification and removal of asbestos before demolition of residential premises 454 Emergency procedure 455 Emergency procedure—residential premises 456 Identification and removal of asbestos before refurbishment 457 Refurbishment of residential premises Part 7—Asbestos removal work 458 Duty to ensure asbestos removalist is licensed 459 Asbestos removal supervisor must be present or readily available 460 Asbestos removal worker must be trained 461 Licensed asbestos removalist must keep training records 462 Duty to give information about health risks of licensed asbestos removal work 463 Asbestos removalist must obtain register 464 Asbestos removal control plan 465 Asbestos removal control plan to be kept and available 466 Regulator must be notified of asbestos removal 467 Licensed asbestos removalist must inform certain persons about intended asbestos removal work 468 Person with management or control of workplace must inform persons about asbestos removal work 469 Signage and barricades for asbestos removal work 470 Limiting access to asbestos removal area 471 Decontamination facilities 472 Disposing of asbestos waste and contaminated personal protective equipment 473 Clearance inspection 474 Clearance certificates Part 8—Asbestos removal requiring asbestos removal licence 475 Air monitoring—asbestos removal requiring asbestos removal licence 476 Action if respirable asbestos fibre level too high 477 Removing friable asbestos Part 9—Asbestos-related work 478 Application of Chapter 8 Part 9 479 Uncertainty as to presence of asbestos 480 Duty to give information about health risks of asbestos‑related work 481 Asbestos-related work to be in separate area 482 Air monitoring 483 Decontamination facilities 484 Disposing of asbestos waste and contaminated personal protective equipment Part 10—Licensing of asbestos removalists and asbestos assessors Division 1—Asbestos removalists—requirement to be licensed 485 Requirement to hold Class A asbestos removal licence 486 Exception to requirement to hold Class A asbestos removal licence 487 Requirement to hold Class B asbestos removal licence 488 Recognition of asbestos removal licences in other jurisdictions Division 2—Asbestos assessors—requirement to be licensed 489 Requirement to hold asbestos assessor licence 490 Recognition of asbestos assessor licences in other jurisdictions Division 3—Licensing process 491 Who may apply for a licence 492 Application for asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence 493 Content of application—Class A asbestos removal licence 494 Content of application—Class B asbestos removal licence 495 Content of application—asbestos assessor licence 496 Additional information 497 Decision on application 498 Class A asbestos removal licence—regulator to be satisfied about additional matters 499 Class B asbestos removal licence—regulator to be satisfied about additional matters 500 Matters to be taken into account 501 Refusal to grant licence—process 502 Conditions of licence 503 Duration of licence 504 Licence document 505 Licence document to be available Division 4—Amendment of licence and licence document 506 Changes to information 507 Change to nominated supervisor 508 Amendment imposed by regulator 509 Amendment on application by licence holder 510 Minor corrections to licence 511 Regulator to give amended licence to the licence holder 512 Licence holder to return licence 513 Replacement licence document 514 Voluntary surrender of licence Division 5—Renewal of licence 515 Regulator may renew licence 516 Application for renewal 517 Provisions relating to renewal of licence 518 Renewal of asbestos removal licence—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters 519 Status of licence during review Division 6—Suspension and cancellation of licence 520 Suspension or cancellation of licence 521 Matters taken into account 522 Notice to and submissions by licence holder 523 Notice of decision 524 Immediate suspension 525 Licence holder to return licence document 526 Regulator to return licence document after suspension Division 7—General 527 Asbestos removal licence register 528 Asbestos assessors register 529 Work must be supervised by named supervisor Chapter 8A—Crystalline silica Part 1—Preliminary 529A Meaning of processing in relation to crystalline silica substances and related terms 529B When processing of CSS is controlled 529C Duty for processing of CSS to be controlled 529CA Identifying processing of CSS that is high risk 529CB Silica risk control plan required for processing of CSS that is high risk 529CC Compliance with silica risk control plan 529CD Duty to train workers about risks of crystalline silica 529CE Monitoring in relation to processing of CSS that is high risk Part 2—Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs 529D Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs—prohibition 529E Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs—exception for particular supply and installation 529F Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs—exception for particular processing Part 3—Regulator to be notified of particular processing of engineered stone 529G Notification of particular processing of engineered stone 529H Notification of change in information given under Part 3 529I Notification that work continues 12 months after last notice given under Part 3 529J Duty to keep notice given under Part 3 Chapter 9—Major hazard facilities Part 1—Preliminary Division 1—Application and interpretation 530 This Chapter does not apply to certain facilities 531 Meaning of major incident 532 Meaning of hazardous chemicals that are present or likely to be present 533 Meaning of operator of a facility or proposed facility 534 Meaning of modification of a facility Division 2—Requirement to be licensed 535 A major hazard facility must be licensed Part 2—Determinations about major hazard facilities 536 Operators of certain facilities must notify regulator 537 Notification—proposed facilities 538 Content of notification 539 When regulator may conduct inquiry 540 Inquiry procedure 541 Determination in relation to facility, on inquiry 542 Determination in relation to over-threshold facility 543 Suitability of facility operator 544 Conditions on determination of major hazard facility 545 Notice and effect of determinations 546 When regulator may revoke a determination 547 Re-notification if quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals increases 548 Notification by new operator 549 Time in which major hazard facility licence must be applied for Part 3—Duties of operators of determined major hazard facilities Division 1—Application of Chapter 9 Part 3 550 Application of Chapter 9 Part 3 Division 2—Safety case outline 551 Safety case outline must be provided 552 Content 553 Alteration Division 3—Management of risk 554 Identification of major incidents and major incident hazards 555 Safety assessment 556 Control of risk 557 Emergency plan 558 Safety management system 559 Review of risk management Division 4—Safety case 560 Safety case must be provided 561 Content 562 Co-ordination for multiple facilities 563 Review Part 4—Licensed major hazard facilities—risk management 564 Identification of major incidents and major incident hazards 565 Safety assessment 566 Control of risk 567 Emergency plan 568 Safety management system 569 Review of risk management 570 Safety case—review 571 Information for visitors 572 Information for local community—general 573 Information for local community—major incident Part 5—Consultation and workers' safety role 574 Safety role for workers 575 Operator of major hazard facility must consult with workers Part 6—Duties of workers at licensed major hazard facilities 576 Duties Part 7—Licensing of major hazard facilities Division 1—Licensing process 577 Who may apply for a licence 578 Application for major hazard facility licence 579 Additional information 580 Decision on application 581 Matters to be taken into account 582 When decision is to be made 583 Refusal to grant major hazard facility licence—process 584 Conditions of licence 585 Duration of licence 585A Annual fee 586 Licence document 587 Licence document to be available Division 2—Amendment of licence and licence document 588 Changes to information 589 Amendment imposed by regulator 590 Amendment on application by operator 591 Minor corrections to major hazard facility licence 592 Regulator to give amended licence document to operator 593 Operator to return licence 594 Replacement licence document Division 3—Renewal of major hazard facility licence 595 Regulator may renew licence 596 Application for renewal 597 Licence continues in force until application is decided 598 Provisions relating to renewal of licence 599 Status of major hazard facility licence during review Division 4—Transfer of major hazard facility licence 600 Transfer of major hazard facility licence Division 5—Suspension and cancellation of major hazard facility licence 601 Cancellation of major hazard facility licence—on operator's application 602 Suspension or cancellation of licence—on regulator's initiative 603 Matters to be taken into account 604 Notice to and submissions by operator 605 Notice of decision 606 Immediate suspension 607 Operator to return licence document 608 Regulator to return licence document after suspension Chapter 10—Mines Part 1—Preliminary 609 Meaning of mine 610 Meaning of mining operations 611 Meaning of mineral 612 Meaning of principal mining hazard 613 Meaning of mine operator 614 Meaning of mine holder 614A Application of Chapter 9 615 Appointment of mine operator 615A Duty to appoint mine manager 616 Notification of mine operator to regulator Part 2—Managing Risks Division 1—General requirements Subdivision 1—Control of risk 617 Managing risks to health and safety 618 Review of control measures 619 Record of certain reviews of control measures—mine operator 620 Record of certain reviews of control measures—other persons conducting a business or undertaking Subdivision 2—Safety management system 621 Duty to establish and implement safety management system 622 Content of safety management system 623 Performance standards and audit 624 Maintenance 625 Review Subdivision 3—Information to adjoining mine operators 626 Duty to provide information to mine operator of adjoining mine Division 2—Principal mining hazard management plans 627 Identification of principal mining hazards and conduct of risk assessments 628 Preparation of principal mining hazard management plan 629 Review Division 3—Specific control measures—all mines Subdivision 1—Operational controls 630 Communication between outgoing and incoming shifts 631 Movement of mobile plant 632 Prohibited uses 633 Closure, suspension or abandonment of mine 634 Minimum age to work in mine Subdivision 2—Air quality and monitoring 635 Temperature and moisture content of air 636 Ensuring exposure standards for dust not exceeded 637 Monitoring exposure to airborne dust 638 Air monitoring—use of devices 639 Air monitoring—signage Subdivision 3—Fitness for work 640 Fatigue 641 Alcohol and drugs Division 4—Specific control measures—underground mines Subdivision 1—All underground mines—operational controls 642 Inrush hazards 643 Connecting workings 644 Winding systems 645 Operation of shaft conveyances 646 Dust explosion Subdivision 2—All underground mines—air quality and ventilation 647 Air quality—airborne contaminants 648 Air quality—minimum standards for ventilated air 649 Air monitoring—air quality 650 Requirements if air quality requirements and exposure standards not complied with 651 Records of air monitoring 652 Ventilation system—further requirements 653 Monitoring and testing of ventilation system 654 Duty to prepare ventilation control plan 655 Review of ventilation control plan 656 Ventilation plan Subdivision 3—Underground coal mines Division 5—Emergency management Subdivision 1—Emergency plans for all mines 664 Duty to prepare emergency plan 665 Consultation in preparation of emergency plan 666 Implementation of emergency plan 667 Copies to be kept and provided 668 Resources for emergency plan 669 Testing of emergency plan 670 Review Subdivision 2—Underground mines 671 Emergency exits 672 Safe escape and refuge 673 Signage for refuges 674 Self-rescuers 675 Personal protective equipment in emergencies Division 6—Information, training and instruction 675A Duty to inform workers about safety management system 675B Duty to provide information, training and instruction 675C Information for visitors 675D Review of information, training and instruction 675E Record of training Part 3—Health Monitoring 675F Health monitoring of worker 675G Duty to inform of health monitoring 675H Duty to ensure health monitoring is carried out or supervised by registered medical practitioner with experience 675I Duty to pay costs of health monitoring 675J Duty to provide registered medical practitioner with information 675K Health monitoring report 675L Person conducting business or undertaking to obtain health monitoring report 675M Person conducting business or undertaking to give health monitoring report to mine operator of mine 675N Duty to give health monitoring report to worker 675O Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator 675P Health monitoring reports kept as records Part 4—Consultation and Workers' Safety Role 675Q Safety role for workers in relation to principal mining hazards 675R Mine operator must consult with workers Part 5—Mine Survey Plans 675S Survey plan of mine must be prepared 675T Review of survey plan 675U Survey plan to be available Part 6—Provision of information to regulator 675V Duty to notify regulator of certain incidents 675W Quarterly reports 675X Duty to notify mine operator of notifiable incidents Part 7—Mine Record 675Y Mine record 675Z Mine record must be kept and available Chapter 11—General Part 1—Review of decisions under these regulations Division 1—Reviewable decisions 676 Which decisions under these regulations are reviewable Division 2—Internal review 677 Application 678 Application for internal review 679 Internal reviewer 680 Decision of internal reviewer 681 Decision on internal review 682 Internal review—reviewable decision continues Division 3—External review 683 Application for external review Part 2—Exemptions Division 1—General 684 General power to grant exemptions 685 Matters to be considered in granting exemptions Division 2—High risk work licences 686 High risk work licence—exemption 687 High risk work licence—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters Division 3—Major hazard facilities 688 Major hazard facility—exemption 689 Major hazard facility—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters Division 3A—Engineered stone 689A Engineered stone—exemption 689B Engineered stone—application for exemption 689C Engineered stone—notifying persons of application for exemption 689D Engineered stone—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters 689E Safe Work Australia may issue and publish documents in relation to exemptions Division 4—Exemption process 690 Application for exemption 691 Conditions of exemption 692 Form of exemption document 693 Compliance with conditions of exemption 694 Notice of decision in relation to exemption 695 Publication of exemption 696 Notice of refusal of exemption 697 Amendment or cancellation of exemption 698 Notice of amendment or cancellation Part 3—Miscellaneous 699 Incident notification—prescribed serious illnesses 699A Incident notification—prescribed dangerous incident 700 Inspectors' identity cards 701 Review of decisions under the Act—stay of decision 702 Confidentiality of information—exception relating to administration or enforcement of other laws 703 Expiation notices 704 Expiation of offences against Act 705 Waiver of fees 706 Registration of employers 707 Prescription of fee Part 4—Transitional and saving provisions 708 Interpretation 709 Training for health and safety representatives (regulation 21) 710 Confined space entry permit (regulation 67) 711 Notice of demolition work (regulation 142) 712 Inspection and testing of electrical equipment (regulation 150) 713 Plant with presence-sensing safeguarding system—records (regulation 226) 714 Major inspection of registered mobile cranes and tower cranes (regulation 235) 715 Records of plant (regulation 237) 716 Health monitoring records (regulation 444) 717 Licensed asbestos removalist must keep training records (regulation 461) 718 Amusement structures—registration of design 719 Amusement structures—registration 720 Plant—registration of design 721 Plant—registration 722 High risk work—accreditation of assessors 723 Pipeline builder's duties (regulation 390) 724 Licence to carry out high risk work 725 Asbestos removal licence 727 Asbestos assessors licence 728 Asbestos removal supervisors and asbestos removal workers 729 Applicants for asbestos removal licences or asbestos assessor licences (regulation 491) 730 Diving work 731 Duties of designers 732 Duties of manufacturers 733 Duties of importers 734 Duties of suppliers 735 Duties of persons who install, construct or commission plant or structures 736 Classification and labelling under GHS 737 Roll-over protection on tractors (regulation 216) 738 Existing use, handling or storing of prohibited or restricted carcinogens (regulations 380 and 381) 739 Codes of practice (repealed Act) 740 Codes of practice (new scheme) 741 Consultants Part 5—Transitional and saving provisions associated with Work Health and Safety (Engineered Stone) Amendment Regulations 2024 742 Particular work involving engineered stone—exception if carried out before 1 July 2024 743 Particular work involving engineered stone—exception if carried out under pre-2024 contract 744 Application of Chapter 8A Part 3 to processing of engineered stone carried out before 1 July 2024 Schedule 2—Fees Schedule 3—High risk work licences and classes of high risk work 1 Boom-type elevating work platform Schedule 4—High risk work licences—competency requirements 1 Purpose of this Schedule Schedule 5—Registration of plant and plant designs Part 1—Plant requiring registration of design 1 Items of plant requiring registration of design 2 Exceptions Part 2—Items of plant requiring registration 3 Items of plant requiring registration 4 Exceptions Schedule 6—Classification of mixtures Schedule 7—Safety data sheets 1 Safety data sheets—content 2 Safety data sheets—research chemical, waste product or sample for analysis Schedule 8—Disclosure of ingredients in safety data sheet 1 Purpose of this Schedule 2 Identity of ingredients to be disclosed 3 Generic names used to disclose identity of ingredients 4 Disclosing proportions of ingredients Schedule 9—Classification, packaging and labelling requirements Part 1—Correct classification 1 Correct classification of a substance, mixture or article Part 2—Correct packing 2 Correctly packing hazardous chemicals Part 3—Correct labelling 3 Labelling hazardous chemicals—general 4 Labelling hazardous chemicals—small container 5 Labelling hazardous chemicals—research chemicals or samples for analysis 6 Labelling hazardous chemicals—decanted or transferred chemicals 7 Labelling hazardous chemicals—known hazards 8 Labelling hazardous chemicals—waste products 9 Labelling hazardous chemicals—explosives 10 Labelling hazardous chemicals—agricultural and veterinary chemicals Schedule 10—Prohibited carcinogens, restricted carcinogens and restricted hazardous chemicals Schedule 11—Placard and manifest quantities 1 Determination of classification of flammable liquids Schedule 12—Manifest requirements 1 Manifest—general information 2 Manifest—bulk storage and containers 3 Manifest—identification of hazardous chemical 4 Manifest—storage area for packaged hazardous chemicals 5 Manifest—hazardous chemicals being manufactured 6 Manifest—hazardous chemicals in transit 7 Manifest—plan of workplace Schedule 13—Placard requirements 1 Displaying placards 2 Maintaining placards 3 Outer warning placards—requirements 4 Placards for particular hazardous chemicals stored in bulk 5 Placards for unstable explosives, organic peroxides type A or self-reactive substances type A stored in bulk 6 Placards for packaged Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals (other than flammable liquids category 4) and IBCs 7 Placards for flammable liquids category 4 packaged or in bulk Schedule 14—Requirements for health monitoring Schedule 15—Hazardous chemicals at major hazard facilities (and their threshold quantity) 1 Definitions 2 Relevant hazardous chemicals 3 Threshold quantity of one hazardous chemical 4 Threshold quantity of more than 1 hazardous chemical 5 How table 15.1 must be used 6 How table 15.2 must be used Schedule 16—Matters to be included in emergency plan for major hazard facility Schedule 17—Additional matters to be included in safety management system of major hazard facility Schedule 18—Additional matters to be included in safety case for a major hazard facility Schedule 19—Principal mining hazard management plans—additional matters to be considered 1 Ground or strata instability 2 Inundation and inrush 3 Mine shafts and winding operations 4 Roads and other vehicle operating areas 5 Air quality, dust and other airborne contaminants 6 Fire and explosion 7 Gas outbursts 8 Spontaneous combustion Schedule 20—Prohibited uses in mines Schedule 21—Concentration levels for atmospheric contaminants Schedule 22—Matters to be included in emergency plan for a mine 1 Site and hazard detail 2 Command structure and site personnel 3 Notifications 4 Resources and equipment 5 Procedures Schedule 23—Information to be included in notification of mining incident 1 Person injured 2 Incident 3 Consequences of incident Schedule 24—Information to be included in mine quarterly report 1 Meaning of incident 2 Mine holder 3 Mine operator 4 The mine 5 Commodity processed 6 Number of workers 7 Number of hours worked 8 Number of incidents 9 Number of lost time injuries 10 Days lost from work 11 Number of restricted duty days 12 Number of workers placed on restricted duties 13 Number of medical treatment injuries 14 Number of deaths 15 Other information Legislative history Chapter 1—Preliminary Part 1—Introductory matters 1—Short title These regulations may be cited as the Work Health and Safety Regulations 2012. 3—Authorising provisions Note— Regulation 3 appears in some corresponding WHS laws but is not required in this State. 4—Revocation Note— Regulation 4 appears in some corresponding WHS laws but is not required in this State. 5—Definitions In these regulations— abrasive blasting means propelling a stream of abrasive material at high speed against a surface using compressed air, liquid, steam, centrifugal wheels or paddles to clean, abrade, etch or otherwise change the original appearance or condition of the surface; accredited assessor means— (a) a person who is accredited under Chapter 4 Part 5 to conduct assessments; or (b) the regulator; Act means the Work Health and Safety Act 2012; ADG Code means the Australian Code for the Transport of Dangerous Goods by Road and Rail, approved by the Transport and Infrastructure Council, as in force or remade from time to time; Note— The ADG Code is accessible at www.ntc.gov.au. administrative control means a method of work, a process or a procedure designed to minimise risk, but does not include— (a) an engineering control; or (b) the use of personal protective equipment; Agvet Code means, in Chapter 7 Part 1, the Agricultural and Veterinary Chemicals Code set out in the Schedule to the Agricultural and Veterinary Chemicals Code Act 1994 of the Commonwealth; airborne contaminant means a contaminant in the form of a fume, mist, gas, vapour or dust, and includes micro-organisms; amusement device means plant operated for hire or reward that provides entertainment, sightseeing or amusement through movement of the equipment, or part of the equipment, or when passengers or other users travel or move on, around or along the equipment, but does not include— (a) a miniature train and railway system owned and operated by a model railway society, club or association; or (b) a ride or device that is used as a form of transport and that is, in relation to its use for that purpose, regulated under another Act or an Act of the Commonwealth; or (c) a boat or flotation device— (i) that is solely propelled by a person who is in or on the boat or device; and (ii) that is not attached to any mechanical elements or equipment outside the boat or device, and that does not rely on any artificial flow of water to move; or (d) any plant specifically designed for a sporting, professional stunt, theatrical or acrobatic purpose or activity; or (e) a coin-operated or token‑operated device that— (i) is intended to be ridden, at the one time, by not more than 4 children who must be below the age of 10 years; and (ii) is usually located in a shopping centre or similar public location; and (iii) does not necessarily have an operator; article means a manufactured item, other than a fluid or particle, that— (a) is formed into a particular shape or design during manufacture; and (b) has hazard properties and a function that are wholly or partly dependent on the shape or design; asbestos means the asbestiform varieties of mineral silicates belonging to the serpentine or amphibole groups of rock forming minerals including the following: (a) actinolite asbestos; (b) grunerite (or amosite) asbestos (brown); (c) anthophyllite asbestos; (d) chrysotile asbestos (white); (e) crocidolite asbestos (blue); (f) tremolite asbestos; (g) a mixture that contains 1 or more of the minerals referred to in paragraphs (a) to (f); asbestos containing material (ACM) means any material or thing that, as part of its design, contains asbestos; asbestos‑contaminated dust or debris (ACD) means dust or debris that has settled within a workplace and is, or is assumed to be, contaminated with asbestos; asbestos management plan—see regulation 429 or 432; asbestos register—see regulation 425; asbestos‑related work means work involving asbestos (other than asbestos removal work to which Chapter 8 Part 7 applies) that is permitted under the exceptions set out in regulation 419(3), (4) and (5); asbestos removal licence means a Class A asbestos removal licence or a Class B asbestos removal licence; asbestos removal work means— (a) work involving the removal of asbestos or ACM; or (b) in Chapter 8 Part 10, Class A asbestos removal work or Class B asbestos removal work; asbestos removalist means a person conducting a business or undertaking who carries out asbestos removal work; asbestos waste means asbestos or ACM removed and disposable items used during asbestos removal work including plastic sheeting and disposable tools; biological monitoring means— (a) the measurement and evaluation of a substance, or its metabolites, in the body tissue, fluids or exhaled air of a person exposed to the substance; or (b) blood lead level monitoring; blood lead level means the concentration of lead in whole blood expressed in micromoles per litre (ìmol/L) or micrograms per decilitre (ìg/dL); blood lead level monitoring means the testing of the venous or capillary blood of a person by a laboratory accredited by NATA, under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner, to determine the blood lead level; boiler means— (a) a vessel, or an arrangement of vessels and interconnecting parts, in which steam or vapour is generated or in which water or other liquid is heated at a pressure above that of the atmosphere by the application of fire, the products of combustion, electrical power or similar high temperature means; and (b) the superheaters, reheaters, economisers, boiler piping, supports, mountings, valves, gauges, fittings, controls, boiler setting and other equipment directly associated with those vessels, but does not include— (c) except in Schedule 3 and Schedule 4, a fully flooded or pressurised system where water or another liquid is heated to a temperature lower than the normal atmospheric boiling temperature of the liquid; or (d) for the purposes of Chapter 5 Part 2 and Part 3 and in Schedule 3 and Schedule 4, a boiler designed or manufactured to the following codes: (i) AMBSC Part 1 —Australian Miniature Boiler Safety Committee Code for Copper Boilers; (ii) AMBSC Part 2 —Australian Miniature Boiler Safety Committee Code for Steel Boilers; (iii) AMBSC Part 3 —Australian Miniature Boiler Safety Committee Code for Sub‑Miniature Boilers; (iv) AMBSC Part 4 —Australian Miniature Boiler Safety Committee Code for Duplex Steel Boilers; or (e) in Schedule 3 and Schedule 4— (i) a direct fired process heater; or (ii) boilers with less than 5 square metres heating surface or 150 kilowatt output; or (iii) unattended boilers certified in compliance with AS 2593:2021 (Boilers—Safety management and supervision systems); boom‑type elevating work platform means a telescoping device, hinged device, or articulated device, or any combination of these, used to support a platform on which personnel, equipment and materials may be elevated; bridge crane means a crane that— (a) consists of a bridge beam or beams, that are mounted to end carriages at each end; and (b) is capable of travelling along elevated runways; and (c) has 1 or more hoisting mechanisms arranged to traverse across the bridge; building maintenance equipment means a suspended platform and associated equipment, including a building maintenance unit or a swing stage, that incorporates permanently installed overhead supports to provide access to the faces of a building for maintenance, but does not include a suspended scaffold; building maintenance unit means a power operated suspended platform and associated equipment on a building specifically designed to provide permanent access to the faces of the building for maintenance; bulk, in relation to a hazardous chemical, means any quantity of a hazardous chemical that is— (a) in a container with a capacity exceeding 500 litres or net mass of more than 500 kilograms; or (b) if the hazardous chemical is a solid—an undivided quantity exceeding 500 kilograms; C1 combustible liquid means, in Chapter 7 Part 1, combustible liquid that has a flash point of 150°C or less; capacity, of a container (in Chapter 7), means the internal volume of the container at a temperature of 15°C expressed in litres; card holder means the person to whom a general construction induction training card is issued; certificate of medical fitness means a certificate of medical fitness that complies with regulation 169; certification, in relation to a specified VET course, means— (a) a statement of attainment issued by an RTO stating that the person to whom it is issued has successfully completed the specified VET course; or (b) in the case of high risk work—a notice of satisfactory assessment stating that the person to whom it is issued has successfully completed the specified VET course; or (c) an equivalent statement or notice issued by a corresponding RTO; certified safety management system, in Chapter 8, means a safety management system that complies with AS 4801:2001 (Occupational health and safety management systems), or an equivalent system determined by the regulator; chemical identity means a name, in accordance with the nomenclature systems of the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry or the Chemical Abstracts Service, or a technical name, that gives a chemical a unique identity; class means— (a) in relation to high risk work, a class of work specified in Schedule 3; (b) in relation to asbestos removal work, Class A asbestos removal work or Class B asbestos removal work; Class A asbestos removal licence means a licence that authorises the carrying out of Class A asbestos removal work and Class B asbestos removal work by or on behalf of the licence holder; Class A asbestos removal work means work that is required to be licensed under regulation 485; Class B asbestos removal licence means a licence that authorises the carrying out of Class B asbestos removal work by or on behalf of the licence holder; Class B asbestos removal work means work that is required to be licensed under regulation 487, but does not include Class A asbestos removal work; class label means a pictogram described in the ADG Code for a class, or division of a class, of dangerous goods; clearance certificate—see regulation 474; clearance inspection—see regulation 473; combustible dust means finely divided solid particles (including dust, fibres or flyings), that are— (a) suspended in air or settle out of the atmosphere under their own weight; and (b) able to burn or glow in air; and (c) able to form an explosive mixture with air at atmospheric pressure and normal temperature; combustible liquid means a liquid, other than a flammable liquid, that has a flash point, and a fire point, less than its boiling point; combustible substance means a substance that is combustible, and includes dust, fibres, fumes, mists or vapours produced by the substance; Examples— Wood, paper, oil, iron filings. competency assessment, in Chapter 4 Part 5, means an assessment in relation to the completion of a specified VET course to carry out a class of high risk work; competent person means— (a) for electrical work on energised electrical equipment or energised electrical installations (other than testing referred to in regulations 150 and 165)—a person registered to undertake the work under the Plumbers, Gas Fitters and Electricians Act 1995; (b) for general diving work—see regulations 174 and 177; (c) for a major inspection of mobile cranes and tower cranes under regulation 235—see regulation 235; (d) for inspection of amusement devices and passenger ropeways under regulation 241—see regulation 241; (e) for design verification under regulation 252—a person who has the skills, qualifications, competence and experience to design the plant or verify the design; (f) for a clearance inspection under regulation 473—a person who has acquired through training or experience the knowledge and skills of relevant asbestos removal industry practice and holds— (i) a certification in relation to the specified VET course for asbestos assessor work; or (ii) a tertiary qualification in occupational health and safety, occupational hygiene, science, building, construction or environmental health; (g) for any other case—a person who has acquired through training, qualification or experience the knowledge and skills to carry out the task; concrete placing boom means plant incorporating an articulating boom, capable of power operated slewing and luffing to place concrete by way of pumping through a pipeline attached to, or forming part of, the boom of the plant; confined space means an enclosed or partially enclosed space that— (a) is not designed or intended primarily to be occupied by a person; and (b) is, or is designed or intended to be, at normal atmospheric pressure while any person is in the space; and (c) is or is likely to be a risk to health and safety from— (i) an atmosphere that does not have a safe oxygen level; or (ii) contaminants, including airborne gases, vapours and dusts, that may cause injury from fire or explosion; or (iii) harmful concentrations of any airborne contaminants; or (iv) engulfment, but does not include a mine shaft or the workings of a mine; confined space entry permit means a confined space entry permit issued under regulation 67; construction project—see regulation 292; construction work—see regulation 289; consumer product means a thing that— (a) is packed or repacked primarily for use by a household consumer or for use in an office; and (b) if the thing is packed or repacked primarily for use by a household consumer—is packed in the way and quantity in which it is intended to be used by a household consumer; and (c) if the thing is packed or repacked primarily for use in an office—is packed in the way and quantity in which it is intended to be used for office work; container, in relation to a hazardous chemical, means anything in or by which a hazardous chemical is, or has been, wholly or partly covered, enclosed or packed, including anything necessary for the container to perform its function as a container; contaminant means any substance that may be harmful to health or safety; controlled, in relation to the processing of a CSS—see regulation 529B; control measure, in relation to a risk to health and safety, means a measure to eliminate or minimise the risk; conveyor means equipment or apparatus operated by power other than manual power and by which loads are raised, lowered or transported or capable of being raised, lowered, transported, or continuously driven, by— (a) an endless belt, rope or chain or other similar means; or (b) buckets, trays or other containers or fittings moved by an endless belt, rope, chain or similar means; or (c) a rotating screw; or (d) a vibration or walking beam; or (e) a powered roller conveyor if the rollers are driven by an endless belt, rope or chain or other similar means, and includes the superstructure, gear and auxiliary equipment used in connection with that equipment or apparatus; correct classification means the set of hazard classes and hazard categories assigned to a hazardous chemical when it is correctly classified; Note— Part 1 of Schedule 9 sets out when a hazardous chemical is correctly classified. crane means an appliance intended for raising or lowering a load and moving it horizontally including the supporting structure of the crane and its foundations, but does not include any of the following: (a) an industrial lift truck; (b) earthmoving machinery; (c) an amusement device; (d) a tractor; (e) an industrial robot; (f) a conveyor; (g) building maintenance equipment; (h) a suspended scaffold; (i) a lift; crystalline silica—see regulation 529A; crystalline silica substance (CSS)—see regulation 529A; current certificate of medical fitness means a certificate of medical fitness that— (a) was issued within the past 12 months; and (b) has not expired or been revoked; demolition work means work to demolish or dismantle a structure, or part of a structure that is loadbearing or otherwise related to the physical integrity of the structure, but does not include— (a) the dismantling of formwork, falsework, or other structures designed or used to provide support, access or containment during construction work; or (b) the removal of power, light or telecommunication poles; derrick crane means a slewing strut‑boom crane with its boom pivoted at the base of a mast that is— (a) guyed (guy‑derrick) or held by backstays (stiff‑legged derrick); and (b) capable of luffing under load; designer, in relation to plant, a substance or a structure, has the same meaning as it has in section 22 of the Act; determined major hazard facility means a facility that has been determined under regulation 541 or 542 to be a major hazard facility; direct fired process heater means an arrangement of 1 or more coils, located in the radiant zone or convection zone, or both, of a combustion chamber, the primary purpose of which is to raise the temperature of a process fluid circulated through the coils, to allow distillation, fractionalism, reaction or other petrochemical processing of the process fluid, whether that fluid is liquid or gas, or a combination of liquid and gas; dogging work means— (a) the application of slinging techniques, including the selection and inspection of lifting gear, to safely sling a load; or (b) the directing of a plant operator in the movement of a load when the load is out of the operator's view; duty holder, in Chapter 3 Part 1, means a person referred to in regulation 32; EANx, in Chapter 4 Part 8, means a mixture of oxygen and nitrogen in which the volume of oxygen is at least 22%; earthmoving machinery means operator controlled plant used to excavate, load, transport, compact or spread earth, overburden, rubble, spoil, aggregate or similar material, but does not include a tractor or industrial lift truck; electrical equipment—see regulation 144 (and regulation 148 for Division 3 of Chapter 4 Part 7); electrical installation—see regulation 145 (and regulation 148 for Division 3 of Chapter 4 Part 7); electrical risk means risk to a person of death, shock or other injury caused directly or indirectly by electricity; electrical work—see regulation 146; electricity supply authority means an electricity entity within the meaning of the Electricity Act 1996 that is licensed to carry on, or is exempted under that Act from the requirement to hold a licence authorising the entity to carry on, the following operations: (a) the generation of electricity; (b) the operation of a transmission or distribution network; emergency service organisation means— (a) an emergency services organisation within the meaning of the Fire and Emergency Services Act 2005; and (b) SA Ambulance Service Inc; and (c) South Australia Police; and (d) in relation to a particular emergency within the meaning of the Emergency Management Act 2004—the control agency for the emergency under that Act; engineered stone—see regulation 529A(1); engineering control means a control measure that is physical in nature, including a mechanical device or process; entry, by a person into a confined space, means the person's head or upper body is in the confined space or within the boundary of the confined space; essential services means the supply of— (a) gas, water, sewerage, telecommunications, electricity and similar services; or (b) chemicals, fuel and refrigerant in pipes or lines; excavation means a trench, tunnel or shaft, but does not include— (a) a mine; or (b) a well within the meaning of the Natural Resources Management Act 2004; (c) a trench for use as a place of interment; excavation work means work to— (a) make an excavation; or (b) fill or partly fill an excavation; exploration site, in Chapter 10, means a place where activities are carried out for the purpose of exploring for minerals by mechanical means that disturb the ground; exposure standard, except in Chapter 4 Part 1, means an exposure standard in the Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants; exposure standard for noise—see regulation 56; external review means an external review under Chapter 11 Part 1; extraction site, in Chapter 10, means a place where activities are carried out for the purpose of extracting minerals from the ground or injecting minerals into the ground; extra-low voltage means voltage that does not exceed 50 volts alternating current (50V AC) or 120 volts ripple‑free direct current (120V ripple‑free DC); facility, in Chapter 9, means a workplace at which Schedule 15 chemicals are present or likely to be present; fall arrest system means plant or material designed to arrest a fall; Example— An industrial safety net, a catch platform, a safety harness system (other than a system that relies entirely on a restraint technique system). fault, in relation to plant, means a break or defect that may cause the plant to present a risk to health and safety; female of reproductive capacity, in Chapter 7 Part 2, means a female other than a female who provides information stating that she is not of reproductive capacity; fire risk hazardous chemical means a hazardous chemical that— (a) is any of the following: (i) a flammable gas; (ii) a flammable liquid (hazard category 1 to 3); (iii) a flammable solid; (iv) a substance liable to spontaneous combustion; (v) a substance which, in contact with water, emits flammable gases; (vi) an oxidizing substance; (vii) an organic peroxide; and (b) burns readily or supports combustion; fitness criteria, in relation to diving work, means the fitness criteria specified in clause M4 of Appendix M to AS/NZS 2299.1:2015 (Occupational diving operations—Standard operational practice); flammable gas has the same meaning as it has in the GHS; flammable liquid means a flammable liquid within the meaning of the GHS that has a flash point of less than 93°C; forklift truck, in Schedule 3 and Schedule 4, means a powered industrial truck equipped with lifting media made up of a mast and an elevating load carriage to which is attached a pair of fork arms or other arms that can be raised 900mm or more above the ground, but does not include a pedestrian‑operated truck or a pallet truck; friable asbestos means material that— (a) is in a powder form or that can be crumbled, pulverised or reduced to a powder by hand pressure when dry; and (b) contains asbestos; gantry crane means a crane that— (a) consists of a bridge beam or beams supported at 1 or both ends by legs mounted to end carriages; (b) is capable of travelling on supporting surfaces or deck levels, whether fixed or not; and (c) has a crab with 1 or more hoisting units arranged to travel across the bridge; gas cylinder means a rigid vessel— (a) that does not exceed 3 000 litres water capacity and is without openings or integral attachments on the shell other than at the ends; and (b) that is designed for the storage and transport of gas under pressure; and (c) that is covered by AS 2030.1:2009 (Gas cylinders—General requirements); general construction induction training means training delivered in Australia by an RTO for the specified VET course for general construction induction training; general construction induction training card means— (a) in Division 2 of Chapter 6 Part 5—a general construction induction training card issued under that Division; (b) in any other case—a general construction induction training card issued— (i) under Division 2 of Chapter 6 Part 5 or under a corresponding WHS law; or (ii) by an RTO under an agreement between the regulator and an RTO or a corresponding regulator and an RTO; general construction induction training certification means a certification for the completion of the specified VET course for general construction induction training; general diving work means work carried out in or under water while breathing compressed gas, and includes— (a) incidental diving work; and (b) limited scientific diving work, but does not include high risk diving work; genuine research means systematic investigative or experimental activities that are carried out for either acquiring new knowledge (whether or not the knowledge will have a specific practical application) or creating new or improved materials, products, devices, processes or services; GHS means the Globally Harmonised System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals, Seventh revised edition, published by the United Nations as modified under Schedule 6; Note— The Schedule 6 tables replace some tables in the GHS. GHS 3 means the Globally Harmonised System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals, Third revised edition, published by the United Nations as modified under Schedule 6; Note— The Schedule 6 tables replace some tables in GHS 3. hazard category means a division of criteria within a hazard class in the GHS; hazard class means the nature of a physical, health or environmental hazard under the GHS; hazard pictogram means a graphical composition, including a symbol plus other graphical elements, that is assigned in the GHS to a hazard class or hazard category; hazard statement means a statement assigned in the GHS to a hazard class or hazard category describing the nature of the hazards of a hazardous chemical including, if appropriate, the degree of hazard; hazardous area means an area in which— (a) an explosive gas is present in the atmosphere in a quantity that requires special precautions to be taken for the construction, installation and use of plant; or (b) a combustible dust is present, or could reasonably be expected to be present, in the atmosphere in a quantity that requires special precautions to be taken for the construction, installation and use of plant; hazardous chemical means a substance, mixture or article that satisfies the criteria for any 1 or more hazard classes in the GHS (including a classification referred to in Schedule 6), unless the only hazard class or classes for which the substance, mixture or article satisfies the criteria are any 1 or more of the following: (a) acute toxicity—oral—category 5; (b) acute toxicity—dermal—category 5; (c) acute toxicity—inhalation—category 5; (d) skin corrosion/irritation—category 3; (e) aspiration hazard—category 2; (f) flammable gas—category 2; (g) acute hazard to the aquatic environment—category 1, 2 or 3; (h) chronic hazard to the aquatic environment—category 1, 2, 3 or 4; (i) hazardous to the ozone layer; Note— The Schedule 6 tables replace some tables in the GHS. hazardous manual task means a task that requires a person to lift, lower, push, pull, carry or otherwise move, hold or restrain any person, animal or thing that involves 1 or more of the following: (a) repetitive or sustained force; (b) high or sudden force; (c) repetitive movement; (d) sustained or awkward posture; (e) exposure to vibration; Examples— 1 A task requiring a person to restrain live animals. 2 A task requiring a person to lift or move loads that are unstable or unbalanced or are difficult to grasp or hold. 3 A task requiring a person to sort objects on a conveyor belt. Hazchem Code means a Hazchem Code under the ADG Code, also known as an Emergency Action Code; head or upper body means the area of a person's body at or above the person's shoulders; health monitoring, of a person, means monitoring the person to identify changes in the person's health status because of exposure to certain substances; heritage boiler means a boiler that— (a) was manufactured before 1952; and (b) is used for a historical purpose or activity, including an activity that is ancillary to a historical activity; Examples— 1 Historical activity: a historical display, parade, demonstration or re‑enactment. 2 Activity ancillary to a historical activity: restoring, maintaining, modifying, servicing, repairing or housing a boiler used, or to be used, for a historical activity. high risk, in relation to the processing of a CSS, means the processing of a CSS that is reasonably likely to result in a risk to the health of a person at the workplace; high risk construction work—see regulation 291; high risk diving work means work— (a) carried out in or under water or any other liquid while breathing compressed gas; and (b) involving 1 or more of the following: (i) construction work; Notes— 1 Subparagraph (ii) includes some additional construction‑related activities. 2 For construction work generally, see Chapter 6. For the meaning of construction work, see regulation 289. (ii) work of the kind described in paragraph (d) of the definition of construction work in regulation 289(3); (iii) inspection work carried out in order to determine whether or not work described in subparagraph (i) or (ii) is necessary; (iv) the recovery or salvage of a large structure or large item of plant for commercial purposes, but does not include minor work carried out in the sea or the waters of a bay or inlet or a marina that involves cleaning, inspecting, maintaining or searching for a vessel or mooring; high risk work means any work set out in Schedule 3 as being within the scope of a high risk work licence; high risk work licence means any of the licences listed in Schedule 3; hoist means an appliance intended for raising or lowering a load or people, and includes an elevating work platform, a mast climbing work platform, personnel and materials hoist, scaffolding hoist and serial hoist, but does not include a lift or building maintenance equipment; ignition source means a source of energy capable of igniting flammable or combustible substances; importer, in relation to plant, a substance or a structure, has the same meaning as it has in section 24 of the Act; incidental diving work means general diving work that— (a) is incidental to the conduct of the business or undertaking in which the diving work is carried out; and Example— Acting underwater is incidental to the business or undertaking of filming. (b) involves limited diving; independent, in relation to clearance inspections and air monitoring under Chapter 8, means— (a) not involved in the removal of the asbestos; and (b) not involved in a business or undertaking involved in the removal of the asbestos, in relation to which the inspection or monitoring is conducted; industrial lift truck means powered mobile plant, designed to move goods, materials or equipment that is equipped with an elevating load carriage and is in the normal course of use equipped with a load‑holding attachment but does not include a mobile crane or earthmoving machinery; industrial robot means plant that is a multifunctional manipulator and its controllers, capable of handling materials, parts or tools, or specialised devices, through variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks; inflatable device (continuously blown) means an amusement device that is an inflatable device that relies on a continuous supply of air pressure to maintain its shape; inrush hazard, in Chapter 10, means a hazard involving the potential inrush of any substance; in situ asbestos means asbestos or ACM fixed or installed in a structure, equipment or plant but does not include naturally occurring asbestos; intermediate bulk container (IBC) has the same meaning as IBC has in the ADG Code; internal review means internal review under Chapter 11 Part 1; in transit, in relation to a thing, means that the thing— (a) is supplied to, or stored at, a workplace in containers that are not opened at the workplace; and (b) is not used at the workplace; and (c) is kept at the workplace for not more than 5 consecutive days; lead means lead metal, lead alloys, inorganic lead compounds and lead salts of organic acids; lead process—see regulation 392; lead process area means a workplace or part of a workplace where a lead process is carried out; lead risk work—see regulation 394; licence holder means— (a) in the case of a high risk work licence—the person who is licensed to carry out the work; or (b) in the case of an asbestos assessor licence—the person who is licensed— (i) to carry out air monitoring during Class A asbestos removal work or Class B asbestos removal work; and (ii) to carry out clearance inspections of Class A asbestos removal work; and (iii) to issue clearance certificates in relation to Class A asbestos removal work; or (c) in the case of an asbestos removal licence—the person conducting the business or undertaking to whom the licence is granted; or (d) in the case of a major hazard facility licence, the operator of the major hazard facility to whom the licence is granted or transferred; licensed asbestos assessor means a person who holds an asbestos assessor licence; licensed asbestos removalist means a person conducting a business or undertaking who is licensed under these regulations to carry out Class A asbestos removal work or Class B asbestos removal work; licensed asbestos removal work means asbestos removal work for which a Class A asbestos removal licence or Class B asbestos removal licence is required; licensed major hazard facility means a major hazard facility that is licensed under Chapter 9 Part 7; lift means plant that is, or is intended to be, permanently installed in or attached to a structure, in which people, goods or materials may be raised or lowered within a car or cage, or on a platform and the movement of which is restricted by a guide or guides, and includes— (a) a chairlift, escalator, moving walkway and stairway lift; and (b) any supporting structure, machinery, equipment, gear, lift well, enclosures and entrances; limited diving means diving that does not involve any of the following: (a) diving to a depth below 30 metres; (b) the need for a decompression stop; (c) the use of mechanical lifting equipment or a buoyancy lifting device; (d) diving beneath anything that would require the diver to move sideways before being able to ascend; (e) the use of plant that is powered from the surface; (f) diving for more than 28 days during a period of 6 months; limited scientific diving work means general diving work that— (a) is carried out for the purpose of professional scientific research, natural resource management or scientific research as an educational activity; and (b) involves only limited diving; local authority, in relation to a facility, means the local authority for the local authority area in which the facility and the surrounding area are located; local community, in relation to a major hazard facility, means the community in the surrounding area; lower explosive limit (LEL), in relation to a flammable gas, vapour or mist, means the concentration of the gas, vapour or mist in air below which the propagation of a flame does not occur on contact with an ignition source; maintain, in relation to plant or a structure in Chapter 5, includes repair or servicing of plant or a structure; major hazard facility means a facility— (a) at which Schedule 15 chemicals are present or likely to be present in a quantity that exceeds their threshold quantity; or (b) that is determined by the regulator under Chapter 9 Part 2 to be a major hazard facility; major hazard facility licence means a licence granted under Chapter 9 Part 7 in relation to a major hazard facility; major incident—see regulation 531; major incident hazard means a hazard that could cause, or contribute to causing, a major incident; manifest means a written summary of the hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored at a workplace; Note— See Schedule 12 (Manifest requirements) for what a manifest must contain. manifest quantity, in relation to a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical, means the manifest quantity referred to in Schedule 11, table 11.1, column 5 for that hazardous chemical; manufacturer, in relation to plant, a substance or a structure, has the same meaning as it has in section 23 of the Act; mast climbing work platform means a hoist with a working platform used for temporary purposes to raise personnel and materials to the working position by means of a drive system mounted on an extendable mast that may be tied to a structure; materials hoist means a hoist that— (a) consists of a car, bucket or platform cantilevered from, and travelling up and down outside, a face of the support of a structure; and (b) is used for hoisting things and substances but not persons; membrane filter method means the membrane filter method described in the Guidance Note on the Membrane Filter Method for Estimating Airborne Asbestos Fibres [NOHSC:3003 (2005)]; mine—see regulation 609; mine holder—see regulation 614; Note— A mine holder is a person conducting a business or undertaking. mine operator—see regulation 613; Note— A mine operator is a person conducting a business or undertaking. mineral—see regulation 611; mining operations—see regulation 610; mixture in Chapter 7 Part 1, means a combination of, or a solution composed of, 2 or more substances that do not react with each other; mobile crane means a crane capable of travelling over a supporting surface without the need for fixed runways and relying only on gravity for stability; modification, in relation to a facility—see regulation 534; musculoskeletal disorder means an injury to, or disease of, the musculoskeletal system, whether occurring suddenly or over time, but does not include an injury caused by crushing, entrapment or cutting resulting principally from the mechanical operation of plant; NATA means the National Association of Testing Authorities, Australia; NATA‑accredited laboratory means a testing laboratory accredited by NATA, or recognised by NATA either solely or with someone else; naturally occurring asbestos means the natural geological occurrence of asbestos minerals found in association with geological deposits including rock, sediment or soil; non‑friable asbestos means material containing asbestos that is not friable asbestos, including material containing asbestos fibres reinforced with a bonding compound; Note— Non‑friable asbestos may become friable asbestos through deterioration (see definition of friable asbestos). non‑slewing mobile crane means a mobile crane incorporating a boom or jib that cannot be slewed, and includes— (a) an articulated mobile crane; or (b) a locomotive crane, but does not include vehicle tow trucks; notice of satisfactory assessment means a notice stating that the person to whom it is issued has successfully completed a specified VET course; operator, in relation to a facility or a proposed facility—see regulation 533; operator protective device, includes a roll-over protective structure, falling object protective structure, operator restraining device and seat belt; order-picking forklift truck, in Schedule 3 and Schedule 4, means a forklift truck where the operator's controls are incorporated with the lifting media and elevate with the lifting media; packaged hazardous chemicals means Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals in a container with— (a) a capacity not exceeding 500 litres; or (b) a net mass not exceeding 500 kilograms; passenger ropeway— (a) means a powered ropeway used for transporting, in a horizontal or inclined plane, passengers moved by a carrier that is— (i) attached to or supported by a moving rope; or (ii) attached to a moving rope but supported by a standing rope or other overhead structure; and (b) includes the prime mover, any associated transmission machinery and any supporting structure and equipment; but (c) does not include any of the following: (i) a cog railway; (ii) a cable car running on rails; (iii) a flying fox or similar device; (iv) an elevating system for vehicles or boat style carriers associated with amusement devices; Example— An elevating system for a log ride or boat flume ride. person with management or control of plant at a workplace has the same meaning as it has in section 21 of the Act; person with management or control of a workplace has the same meaning as it has in section 20 of the Act; personal protective equipment means anything used or worn by a person to minimise risk to the person's health and safety, including air supplied respiratory equipment; personnel and materials hoist means a hoist— (a) that is a cantilever hoist, a tower hoist or several winches configured to operate as a hoist; and (b) that is intended to carry goods, materials or people; pipeline means pipe work that crosses a boundary of a workplace, beginning or ending at the nearest fluid or slurry control point (along the axis of the pipeline) to the boundary; pipe work means a pipe or assembly of pipes, pipe fittings, valves and pipe accessories used to convey a hazardous chemical; placard means a sign or notice— (a) displayed or intended for display in a prominent place, or next to a container or storage area for hazardous chemicals at a workplace; and (b) that contains information about the hazardous chemical stored in the container or storage area; placard quantity, in relation to a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical, means the placard quantity referred to in Schedule 11, table 11.1 column 4 for the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical; plant, in Chapter 5 Part 2 and Chapter 5 Part 3, includes a structure; platform height, in relation to an inflatable device (continuously blown), means the height of the highest part of the device designed to support persons using it (the platform), as measured from the surface supporting the device to the top surface of the platform when the device is inflated but unloaded; porcelain product does not include a product that contains resin; portal boom crane means a boom crane or a jib crane that is mounted on a portal frame that, in turn, is supported on runways along which the crane travels; powered mobile plant means plant that is provided with some form of self‑propulsion that is ordinarily under the direct control of an operator; precautionary statement means a phrase prescribed by the GHS that describes measures that are recommended to be taken to prevent or minimise— (a) the adverse effects of exposure to a hazardous chemical; or (b) improper handling of a hazardous chemical; presence‑sensing safeguarding system includes— (a) a sensing system that uses 1 or more forms of radiation either self‑generated or otherwise generated by pressure; and (b) the interface between the final switching devices of the sensing system and the machine primary control elements; and (c) the machine stopping capabilities, by which the presence of a person or part of a person within the sensing field will cause the dangerous parts of a machine to be brought to a safe state; pressure equipment means boilers, pressure vessels and pressure piping; pressure piping— (a) means an assembly of pipes, pipe fittings, valves and pipe accessories subject to internal or external pressure and used to contain or convey fluid or to transmit fluid pressure; and (b) includes distribution headers, bolting, gaskets, pipe supports and pressure containing accessories; but (c) does not include— (i) a boiler or pressure vessel; or (ii) any piping that is regulated under the Petroleum and Geothermal Energy Act 2000, the Petroleum (Submerged Lands) Act 1982 or the Gas Act 1997; pressure vessel— (a) means a vessel subject to internal or external pressure; and (b) includes— (i) interconnected parts and components, valves, gauges and other fittings up to the first point of connection to connecting piping; and (ii) fired heaters; and (iii) gas cylinders; but (c) does not include a boiler or pressure piping; primary emergency service organisations means the South Australian Metropolitan Fire Service and the South Australian Country Fire Service; principal contractor, in relation to a construction project—see regulation 293; principal mining hazard—see regulation 612; processing, in relation to a CSS—see regulation 529A; product identifier means the name or number used to identify a product on a label or in a safety data sheet; prohibited carcinogen means a substance— (a) listed in Schedule 10, table 10.1, column 2; and (b) present in a concentration of— (i) for a solid or liquid—0.1% or more, determined as a weight/weight (w/w) concentration; and (ii) for a gas—0.1% or more, determined as a volume/volume (v/v) concentration; proposed facility means— (a) an existing workplace that is to become a facility due to the introduction of Schedule 15 chemicals; or (b) a facility that is being designed or constructed; proposed major hazard facility means— (a) an existing facility or other workplace that is to become a major hazard facility due to the introduction of Schedule 15 chemicals or the addition of further Schedule 15 chemicals; or (b) a major hazard facility that is being designed or constructed; psychosocial hazard—see regulation 55A; psychosocial risk—see regulation 55B; quantity, in Chapter 7, means— (a) for a hazardous chemical that is not a liquid or a gas or a gas under pressure and is in a container or storage or handling system—the mass in kilograms of the hazardous chemical in the container or storage or handling system; and (b) for a hazardous chemical that is a liquid and is not a gas under pressure and is in a container or storage or handling system—the net capacity in litres of the container or storage or handling system; and (c) for a hazardous chemical that is a gas or gas under pressure in a container or storage or handling system—the water capacity in litres of the container or storage or handling system; and (d) for a hazardous chemical that is not a liquid and is in bulk and not in a container—the undivided mass in kilograms; and (e) for a hazardous chemical that is a thing and is not a gas—the net capacity of the part of the thing that comprises a hazardous chemical; R.C.D. means a residual current device as defined in AS/NZS 3760 In‑service safety inspection and testing of electrical equipment; reach stacker means a powered reach stacker that incorporates an attachment for lifting and lowering a shipping container; reciprocating steam engine means equipment that is driven by steam acting on a piston causing the piston to move, and includes an expanding (steam) reciprocating engine; registered medical practitioner means a person registered under the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law to practise in the medical profession (other than as a student); registered training organisation (RTO) means a training organisation that— (a) is listed as a registered training organisation on the National Register established under the National Vocational Education and Training Regulator Act 2011 of the Commonwealth; and (b) has entered into an agreement with the regulator to deliver training and conduct assessments; relevant fee, in relation to a matter, means the fee prescribed for the purposes of the Act or these regulations for that matter; research chemical means a substance or mixture that— (a) is manufactured in a laboratory for genuine research; and (b) is not for use or supply for a purpose other than analysis or genuine research; respirable asbestos fibre means an asbestos fibre that— (a) is less than 3 micrometres wide; and (b) more than 5 micrometres long; and (c) has a length to width ratio of more than 3:1; restricted carcinogen means a substance— (a) listed in Schedule 10, table 10.2, column 2 for a use listed in column 3; and (b) present in a concentration of— (i) for a solid or liquid—0.1% or more, determined as a weight/weight (w/w) concentration; and (ii) for a gas—0.1% or more, determined as a volume/volume (v/v) concentration; retailer means a person whose principal business is supplying consumer products to members of the public who are not engaged in the further supply of those products; rigging work means— (a) the use of mechanical load shifting equipment and associated gear to move, place or secure a load using plant, equipment or members of a structure to ensure the stability of those members; or (b) the setting up or dismantling of cranes or hoists; rope, in Chapter 10, includes cable; safe oxygen level means a minimum oxygen content of air of 19.5% by volume under normal atmospheric pressure and a maximum oxygen content of air of 23.5% by volume under normal atmospheric pressure; Safe Work Australia means Safe Work Australia as established under section 5 of the Safe Work Australia Act 2008 of the Commonwealth; safe work method statement means— (a) in relation to electrical work on energised electrical equipment—a safe work method statement prepared under regulation 161; (b) in relation to high risk construction work—a safe work method statement referred to in regulation 299 (as revised under regulation 302); safety data sheet means a safety data sheet prepared under regulation 330 or 331; scaffold means a temporary structure specifically erected to support access or working platforms; scaffolding work means erecting, altering or dismantling a temporary structure that is or has been erected to support a platform and from which a person or object could fall more than 4 metres from the platform or the structure; Schedule 11 hazardous chemical means a hazardous chemical or combination of hazardous chemicals specified in Schedule 11, table 11.1; Schedule 15 chemical means a hazardous chemical that— (a) is specified in Schedule 15, table 15.1; or (b) belongs to a class, type or category of hazardous chemicals specified in Schedule 15, table 15.2; self‑erecting tower crane means a crane— (a) that is not disassembled into a tower element and a boom or jib element in the normal course of use; and (b) where the erection and dismantling processes are an inherent part of the crane's function; shaft means a vertical or inclined way or opening, from the surface downwards or from any underground working, the dimensions of which (apart from the perimeter) are less than its depth (and in Chapter 10, shaft includes a drift or horizontal shaft); signal word means the word "danger" or "warning" used on a label to indicate to a label reader the relative severity level of a hazard, and to alert the reader to a potential hazard, under the GHS; silica risk control plan means, in relation to the processing of a CSS that is high risk, a silica risk control plan prepared under regulation 529CB; sintered stone does not include a product that contains resin; slewing mobile crane means a mobile crane incorporating a boom or jib that can be slewed, but does not include— (a) a front‑end loader; or (b) a backhoe; or (c) an excavator; or (d) other earth moving equipment, when configured for crane operation; slinging techniques means the exercising of judgment in relation to the suitability and condition of lifting gear and the method of slinging, by consideration of the nature of the load, its mass and its centre of gravity; specified VET course means— (a) in relation to general construction induction training—the VET course Work Safely in the Construction Industry or a corresponding subsequent VET accredited course; or (b) in relation to Class A asbestos removal work—the VET course Remove friable asbestos; or (c) in relation to Class B asbestos removal work—the VET course Remove non friable asbestos; or (d) in relation to the supervision of asbestos removal work—the VET course Supervise asbestos removal; or (e) in relation to asbestos assessor work—the VET course Conduct asbestos assessment associated with removal; or (f) in relation to high risk work—the relevant VET course specified in Schedule 4; steam turbine means equipment that is driven by steam acting on a turbine or rotor to cause a rotary motion; structure, in Chapter 6—see regulation 290; substance, in Chapter 7 Part 1, means a chemical element or compound in its natural state or obtained or generated by a process— (a) including any additive necessary to preserve the stability of the element or compound and any impurities deriving from the process; but (b) excluding any solvent that may be separated without affecting the stability of the element or compound, or changing its composition; supplier, in relation to plant, a substance or a structure, has the same meaning as it has in section 25 of the Act; surrounding area, in relation to a facility, means the area surrounding the facility in which the health and safety of persons could potentially be adversely affected by a major incident occurring; suspended scaffold means a scaffold incorporating a suspended platform that is capable of being raised or lowered when in use; technical name, in the definition of chemical identity, means a name that is— (a) ordinarily used in commerce, regulations and codes to identify a substance or mixture, other than an International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry or Chemical Abstracts Service name; and (b) recognised by the scientific community; temporary work platform means— (a) a fixed, mobile or suspended scaffold; or (b) an elevating work platform; or (c) a mast climbing work platform; or (d) a work box supported by a crane, hoist, forklift truck or other form of mechanical plant; or (e) building maintenance equipment, including a building maintenance unit; or (f) a portable or mobile fabricated platform; or (g) any other temporary platform that— (i) provides a working area; and (ii) is designed to prevent a fall; theatrical performance means acting, singing, playing a musical instrument, dancing or otherwise performing literary or artistic works or expressions of traditional custom or folklore; threshold quantity, in relation to a Schedule 15 chemical, means— (a) the threshold quantity of a specific hazardous chemical as determined under clause 3 of Schedule 15; or (b) the aggregate threshold quantity of 2 or more hazardous chemicals as determined under clause 4 of Schedule 15; tower crane means— (a) a crane that has a boom or a jib mounted on a tower structure; and (b) in Schedule 3— (i) the crane, if a jib crane, may be a horizontal or luffing jib type; and (ii) the tower structure may be demountable or permanent, but does not include a self‑erecting tower crane; tractor means a motor vehicle whether wheeled or track mounted, designed to provide power and movement to any attached machine or implement by a transmission shaft, belt or linkage system but does not include earthmoving machinery; trench means a horizontal or inclined way or opening— (a) the length of which is greater than its width and greater than or equal to its depth; and (b) that commences at and extends below the surface of the ground; and (c) that is open to the surface along its length; tunnel means an underground passage or opening that— (a) is approximately horizontal; and (b) commences at the surface of the ground or at an excavation; UN number has the same meaning as it has in Attachment 2 of the ADG Code; vehicle hoist means a device to hoist vehicles designed to provide access for under‑chassis examination or service; vehicle loading crane means a crane mounted on a vehicle for the purpose of loading and unloading the vehicle; VET course has the same meaning as it has in the National Vocational Education and Training Regulator Act 2011 of the Commonwealth; WHS management plan, in relation to a construction project, means a management plan prepared or revised under Chapter 6 Part 4; winder, in Chapter 10, means any plant that is used to move, by means of 1 or more ropes, conveyances in a shaft for the transport of persons, material or plant; work box means a personnel carrying device, designed to be suspended from a crane, to provide a working area for a person elevated by and working from the device; Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants means the Workplace Exposure for Airborne Contaminants published by Safe Work Australia on its website on 18 April 2013 as in force or remade from time to time; work positioning system means any plant or structure, other than a temporary work platform, that enables a person to be positioned and safely supported at a location for the duration of the relevant work being carried out. 6—Determination of safety management system The regulator may make a determination for the purposes of the definition of certified safety management system. 7—Meaning of person conducting a business or undertaking: persons excluded (1) For the purposes of section 5(6) of the Act, a strata title body corporate that is responsible for any common areas used only for residential purposes may be taken not to be a person conducting a business or undertaking in relation to those premises. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the strata title body corporate engages any worker as an employee. (3) For the purposes of section 5(6) of the Act, an incorporated association may be taken not to be a person conducting a business or undertaking if the incorporated association consists of a group of volunteers working together for 1 or more community purposes where— (a) the incorporated association, either alone or jointly with any other similar incorporated association, does not employ any person to carry out work for the incorporated association; and (b) none of the volunteers, whether alone or jointly with any other volunteers, employs any person to carry out work for the incorporated association. (4) In this regulation— strata title body corporate means— (a) a strata corporation within the meaning of the Strata Titles Act 1988; or (b) a community corporation within the meaning of the Community Titles Act 1996. 8—Meaning of supply For the purposes of section 6(3)(b) of the Act, a supply of a thing does not include the supply of a thing by a person who does not control the supply and has no authority to make decisions about the supply. Examples— 1 An auctioneer who auctions a thing without having possession of the thing. 2 A real estate agent acting in his or her capacity as a real estate agent. 8A—Meaning of emergency services worker Pursuant to paragraph (e) of the definition of emergency services worker in section 4 of the Act, a person engaged in the provision of emergency ambulance services on behalf of SA Ambulance Service Inc under section 57 of the Health Care Act 2008 is brought within the ambit of the definition. 8B—Meaning of dangerous goods For the purposes of the definition of dangerous goods in Schedule 1 of the Act, the following are prescribed: (a) anything that is a dangerous good within the meaning of the Dangerous Substances (Dangerous Goods Transport) Regulations 2008; (b) a good of a kind that is described in column 2 of the table in regulation 328(3). 8C—Meaning of high risk plant For the purposes of the definition of high risk plant in Schedule 1 of the Act, plant specified in Schedule 5 Part 2 that is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3 is prescribed. 8D—Infringement offences An offence against these regulations for which an expiation fee is prescribed is declared to be an infringement offence for the purposes of the Act. 9—Provisions linked to health and safety duties in Act If a note at the foot of a provision of these regulations states "WHS Act" followed by a reference to a section number, the regulation provision sets out the way in which a person's duty or obligation under that section of the Act is to be performed in relation to the matters and to the extent set out in the regulation provision. Note— A failure to comply with a duty or obligation under a section of the Act referred to in a "WHS Act" note is an offence to which a penalty applies. Part 2—Application 10—Application of Act to dangerous goods and high risk plant The following provisions of the Act are excluded from the operation of Schedule 1 to the Act: (a) Divisions 2 to 8 of Part 5; (b) Part 6; (c) Part 7. 11—Application of these regulations A duty imposed on a person under a provision of these regulations in relation to health and safety does not limit or affect any duty the person has under the Act or, unless otherwise expressly provided, any other provision of these regulations. 12—Assessment of risk in relation to a class of hazards, tasks, circumstances or things If these regulations require an assessment of risks to health and safety associated with a hazard, task, thing or circumstance, an assessment of risks associated with a class of hazards, tasks, things or circumstances may be conducted if— (a) all hazards, tasks, things or circumstances in the class are the same; and (b) the assessment of risks for the class does not result in any worker or other person being exposed to a greater, additional or different risk to health and safety than if the risk assessment were carried out in relation to each individual hazard, task, thing or circumstance. Part 3—Incorporated documents 13—Documents incorporated as in force when incorporated A reference to any document applied, adopted or incorporated by, or referred to in, these regulations is to be read as a reference to that document as in force at the time the document is applied, adopted, incorporated or referred to unless express provision is made to the contrary. 14—Inconsistencies between provisions If a provision of any document applied, adopted or incorporated by, or referred to in, these regulations is inconsistent with any provision in these regulations, the provision of these regulations prevails. 15—References to standards (1) In these regulations, a reference consisting of the words "Australian Standard" or the letters "AS" followed in either case by a number or a number accompanied by a reference to a calendar year is a reference to the standard so numbered published by or on behalf of Standards Australia. (2) In these regulations, a reference consisting of the expression "Australian/New Zealand Standard" or "AS/NZS" followed in either case by a number or a number accompanied by a reference to a calendar year is a reference to the standard so numbered published jointly by or on behalf of Standards Australia and the Standards Council of New Zealand. Note— A person is only required to comply with an Australian Standard or Australian/New Zealand Standard that is applied, adopted or incorporated by, or otherwise referred to in, a regulation to the extent the regulation provides, whether expressly or by necessary implication. For example, in regulation 5, definition of boiler, there is an exception in paragraph (e)(iii). The definition does not require a person to comply with AS 2593:2004, but equipment must be certified in compliance with AS 2593:2004 in order to fall within that particular exception. The reference to an Australian Standard in this case is part of a description of equipment excluded from the definition of boiler. As a result, the equipment is not covered by particular provisions of these regulations relating to high risk work. Chapter 2—Representation and participation Part 1—Representation Division 1—Work groups 16—Negotiations for and determination of work groups Negotiations for and determination of work groups and variations of work groups must be directed at ensuring that the workers are grouped in a way that— (a) most effectively and conveniently enables the interests of the workers in relation to work health and safety to be represented; and (b) has regard to the need for a health and safety representative for the work group to be readily accessible to each worker in the work group. Note— Under the Act, a work group may be determined for workers at more than one workplace (section 51(3)) or for workers carrying out work for 2 or more persons conducting businesses or undertakings at 1 or more workplaces (Subdivision 3 of Division 3 of Part 5 of the Act). 17—Matters to be taken into account in negotiations For the purposes of sections 52(6) and 56(4) of the Act, negotiations for and determination of work groups and variation of agreements concerning work groups must take into account all relevant matters including the following: (a) the number of workers; (b) the views of workers in relation to the determination and variation of work groups; (c) the nature of each type of work carried out by the workers; (d) the number and grouping of workers who carry out the same or similar types of work; (e) the areas or places where each type of work is carried out; (f) the extent to which any worker must move from place to place while at work; (g) the diversity of workers and their work; (h) the nature of any hazards at the workplace or workplaces; (i) the nature of any risks to health and safety at the workplace or workplaces; (j) the nature of the engagement of each worker, for example as an employee or as a contractor; (k) the pattern of work carried out by workers, for example whether the work is full‑time, part‑time, casual or short‑term; (l) the times at which work is carried out; (m) any arrangements at the workplace or workplaces relating to overtime or shift work. Division 2—Health and safety representatives 18—Procedures for election of health and safety representatives (1) This regulation sets out minimum procedural requirements for the election of a health and safety representative for a work group for the purposes of section 61(2) of the Act. (2) The person conducting the election must take all reasonable steps to ensure that the following procedures are complied with: (a) each person conducting a business or undertaking in which a worker in the work group works is informed of the date on which the election is to be held as soon as practicable after the date is determined; (b) all workers in the work group are given an opportunity to— (i) nominate for the position of health and safety representative; and (ii) vote in the election; (c) all workers in the work group and all relevant persons conducting a business or undertaking are informed of the outcome of the election. 19—Person conducting business or undertaking must not delay election A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not unreasonably delay the election of a health and safety representative. 20—Removal of health and safety representatives (1) For the purposes of section 64(2)(d) of the Act, the majority of the members of a work group may remove a health and safety representative for the work group if the members sign a written declaration that the health and safety representative should no longer represent the work group. (2) A member of the work group nominated by the members who signed the declaration must, as soon as practicable— (a) inform the following persons of the removal of the health and safety representative: (i) the health and safety representative who has been removed; (ii) each person conducting a business or undertaking in which a worker in the work group works; and (b) take all reasonable steps to inform all members of the work group of the removal. (3) The removal of the health and safety representative takes effect when the persons referred to in subregulation (2)(a) and the majority of members of the work group have been informed of the removal. 21—Training for health and safety representatives (1) In approving a course of training in work health and safety for the purposes of section 72(1) of the Act, the regulator may have regard to any relevant matters including— (a) the content and quality of the curriculum, including its relevance to the powers and functions of a health and safety representative; and (b) the qualifications, knowledge and experience of the person who is to provide the course. (2) An approval by the regulator of a course of training in work health and safety for the purposes of section 72 may be varied or revoked by the regulator. (3) The regulator may impose conditions on an approval under this regulation and may vary those conditions. (4) For the purposes of section 72(1)(b) of the Act, a health and safety representative is entitled to attend any course of training approved by the regulator under this regulation and 5 days training under section 72(9)(a) of the Act will constitute initial training for the purposes of sections 85(6) and 90(4) of the Act. Note— This regulation prescribes courses of training to which a health and safety representative is entitled. In addition to these courses, the health and safety representative and the person conducting the business or undertaking may agree that the representative will attend or receive further training. Part 2—Issue resolution 22—Agreed procedure—minimum requirements (1) This regulation sets out minimum requirements for an agreed procedure for issue resolution at the workplace. (2) The agreed procedure for issue resolution at a workplace must include the steps set out in regulation 23. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that the agreed procedure for issue resolution at the workplace— (a) includes the steps specified in regulation 23; and (b) is set out in writing; and (c) is communicated to all workers to whom the agreed procedure applies. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 23—Default procedure (1) This regulation sets out the default procedure for issue resolution for the purposes of section 81(2) of the Act. (2) Any party to the issue may commence the procedure by informing each other party— (a) that there is an issue to be resolved; and (b) the nature and scope of the issue. (3) As soon as parties are informed of the issue, all parties must meet or communicate with each other to attempt to resolve the issue. (4) The parties must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) the degree and immediacy of risk to workers or other persons involved in the issue; (b) the number and location of workers and other persons affected by the issue; (c) the measures (both temporary and permanent) that must be implemented to resolve the issue; (d) who will be responsible for implementing the resolution measures. (5) A party may, in resolving the issue, be assisted or represented by a person nominated by the party. (6) If the issue is resolved, details of the issue and its resolution must be set out in a written agreement if any party to the issue requests this. Note— Under the Act, parties to an issue include not only a person conducting a business or undertaking, a worker and a health and safety representative, but also representatives of these persons (see section 80 of the Act). (7) If a written agreement is prepared all parties to the issue must be satisfied that the agreement reflects the resolution of the issue. (8) A copy of the written agreement must be given to— (a) all parties to the issue; and (b) if requested, to the health and safety committee for the workplace. (9) To avoid doubt, nothing in this procedure prevents a worker from bringing a work health and safety issue to the attention of the worker's health and safety representative. Part 3—Cessation of unsafe work 24—Continuity of engagement of worker For the purposes of section 88 of the Act, the prescribed purposes are the assessment of eligibility for, or the calculation of benefits for, any benefit or entitlement associated with the worker's engagement, including 1 or more of the following: (a) remuneration and promotion, as affected by seniority; (b) superannuation benefits; (c) leave entitlements; (d) any entitlement to notice of termination of the engagement. Part 4—Workplace entry by WHS entry permit holders 25—Training requirements for WHS entry permits (1) The prescribed training for the purposes of sections 131 and 133 of the Act is training or refresher training, that is provided or approved by the regulator, in relation to the following: (a) the right of entry requirements under Part 7 of the Act; (b) the issue resolution requirements under the Act and these regulations; (c) the duties under, and the framework of, the Act and these regulations; (d) the requirements for the management of risks under section 17 of the Act; (e) the meaning of reasonably practicable as set out in section 18 of the Act; (f) the relationship between the Act and these regulations and the Fair Work Act or the Fair Work Act 1994. (2) The training must include providing the participant with information about the availability of any guidance material published by the regulator in relation to the Act and these regulations. (3) For the purposes of approving training, the regulator may have regard to any relevant matters, including— (a) the content and quality of the curriculum, including its relevance to the powers and functions of a WHS permit holder; and (b) the qualifications, knowledge and experience of the person who is to provide the course. (4) Training in relation to the matters referred to in subregulation (1) that occurred before the commencement of this regulation may be approved by the regulator for the purposes of this regulation. (5) An approval of training by the regulator for the purposes of this regulation may be varied or revoked by the regulator. (6) The regulator may impose conditions on an approval under this regulation and may vary those conditions. 26—Form of WHS entry permit A WHS entry permit must include the following: (a) the section of the Act under which the WHS entry permit is issued; (b) the full name of the WHS entry permit holder; (c) the name of the union that the WHS entry permit holder represents; (d) a statement that the WHS entry permit holder is entitled, while the WHS entry permit is in force, to exercise the rights given to the WHS entry permit holder under the Act; (e) the date of issue of the WHS entry permit; (f) the expiry date for the WHS entry permit; (g) the signature of the WHS entry permit holder; (h) any conditions on the WHS entry permit. 27—Notice of entry—general A notice of entry under Part 7 of the Act must— (a) be written; and (b) include the following: (i) the full name of the WHS entry permit holder; (ii) the name of the union that the WHS entry permit holder represents; (iii) the section of the Act under which the WHS entry permit holder is entering or proposing to enter the workplace; (iv) the name and address of the workplace entered or proposed to be entered; (v) the date of entry or proposed entry; (vi) the additional information and other matters required under regulation 28, 29 or 30 (as applicable). 28—Additional requirements—entry under section 117 (1) The following requirements are prescribed under section 117(3)(b) of the Act: (a) notice to the Executive Director about the proposed entry must be given by contacting the Department by telephone using a number determined by the Executive Director and published on a website maintained or used by the Department; (b) the WHS entry permit holder must provide the following information: (i) his or her full name; (ii) his or her permit number; (iii) the name and address of the workplace proposed to be entered; (iv) the date of proposed entry; (v) so far as is practicable, particulars of the suspected contravention to which the notice relates; (vi) whether there is considered to be a serious risk to the health or safety of a person emanating from an immediate or imminent risk and, if so, any details about the situation known to the WHS entry permit holder. (2) The following requirements are prescribed for the purposes of a report to the Executive Director under section 117 of the Act: (a) the report must be set out in a document that is furnished to the Executive Director at an email address, postal address or fax number determined by the Executive Director and published on a website maintained or used by the Department; and (b) the report must set out the following information: (i) the WHS entry permit holder's full name; (ii) the permit number; (iii) the name and address of the workplace that was entered; (iv) the date of entry; (v) details of any contravention of the Act that, in the opinion of the WHS entry permit holder, has occurred. (3) A notice of entry under section 119 of the Act in relation to an entry under section 117 must also include the following: (a) so far as is practicable, the particulars of the suspected contravention to which the notice relates; (b) a declaration stating— (i) that the union is entitled to represent the industrial interests of a worker who carries out work at the workplace entered and is a member, or eligible to be a member, of that union; and (ii) the provision in the union's rules that entitles the union to represent the industrial interests of that worker; and (iii) that the suspected contravention relates to, or affects, that worker. Note— Section 130 of the Act provides that a WHS entry permit holder is not required to disclose the name of any worker to the person conducting the business or undertaking, and may do so only with the consent of the worker. 29—Additional requirements—entry under section 120 A notice of entry under section 120 of the Act in relation to an entry under that section must also include the following: (a) so far as is practicable, the particulars of the suspected contravention to which the notice relates; (b) a description of the employee records and other documents, or of the classes of records and documents, directly relevant to the suspected contravention, that are proposed to be inspected; (c) a declaration stating— (i) that the union is entitled to represent the industrial interests of a worker who is a member, or eligible to be a member, of that union; and (ii) the provision in the union's rules that entitles the union to represent the industrial interests of that worker; and (iii) that the suspected contravention relates to, or affects, that worker; and (iv) that the records or documents proposed to be inspected relate to that contravention. Note— Section 130 of the Act provides that a WHS entry permit holder is not required to disclose the name of any worker to the person conducting the business or undertaking, and may do so only with the consent of the worker. 30—Additional requirements—entry under section 121 A notice of entry under section 122 of the Act in relation to an entry under section 121 must also include a declaration stating— (a) that the union is entitled to represent the industrial interests of a worker who carries out work at the workplace proposed to be entered and is a member, or eligible to be a member, of that union; and (b) the provision in the union's rules that entitles the union to represent the industrial interests of that worker. Note— Section 130 of the Act provides that a WHS entry permit holder is not required to disclose the name of any worker to the person conducting the business or undertaking, and may do so only with the consent of the worker. 31—Register of WHS entry permit holders For the purposes of section 151 of the Act, the authorising authority must publish on its website— (a) an up‑to‑date register of WHS entry permit holders; and (b) the date on which the register was last updated. Chapter 3—General risk and workplace management Part 1—Managing risks to health and safety 32—Application of Chapter 3 Part 1 This Part applies to a person conducting a business or undertaking who has a duty under these regulations to manage risks to health and safety. 33—Specific requirements must be complied with Any specific requirements under these regulations for the management of risk must be complied with when implementing the requirements of this Part. Examples— 1 A requirement not to exceed an exposure standard. 2 A duty to implement a specific control measure. 3 A duty to assess risk. 34—Duty to identify hazards A duty holder, in managing risks to health and safety, must identify reasonably foreseeable hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety. 35—Managing risks to health and safety A duty holder, in managing risks to health and safety, must— (a) eliminate risks to health and safety so far as is reasonably practicable; and (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate risks to health and safety—minimise those risks so far as is reasonably practicable. 36—Hierarchy of control measures (1) This regulation applies if it is not reasonably practicable for a duty holder to eliminate risks to health and safety. (2) A duty holder, in minimising risks to health and safety, must implement risk control measures in accordance with this regulation. (3) The duty holder must minimise risks, so far as is reasonably practicable, by doing 1 or more of the following: (a) substituting (wholly or partly) the hazard giving rise to the risk with something that gives rise to a lesser risk; (b) isolating the hazard from any person exposed to it; (c) implementing engineering controls. (4) If a risk then remains, the duty holder must minimise the remaining risk, so far as is reasonably practicable, by implementing administrative controls. (5) If a risk then remains, the duty holder must minimise the remaining risk, so far as is reasonably practicable, by ensuring the provision and use of suitable personal protective equipment. Note— A combination of the controls set out in this regulation may be used to minimise risks so far as is reasonably practicable if a single control is not sufficient for the purpose. 37—Maintenance of control measures A duty holder who implements a control measure to eliminate or minimise risks to health and safety must ensure that the control measure is, and is maintained so that it remains, effective, including by ensuring that the control measure is and remains— (a) fit for purpose; and (b) suitable for the nature and duration of the work; and (c) installed, set up and used correctly. 38—Review of control measures (1) A duty holder must review and, as necessary, revise control measures implemented under these regulations so as to maintain, so far as is reasonably practicable, a work environment that is without risks to health or safety. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the duty holder must review and, as necessary, revise a control measure in the following circumstances: (a) the control measure does not control the risk it was implemented to control so far as is reasonably practicable; Examples— 1 The results of monitoring show that the control measure does not control the risk. 2 A notifiable incident occurs because of the risk. (b) before a change at the workplace that is likely to give rise to a new or different risk to health or safety that the measure may not effectively control; (c) a new relevant hazard or risk is identified; (d) the results of consultation by the duty holder under the Act or these regulations indicate that a review is necessary; (e) a health and safety representative requests a review under subregulation (4). (3) Without limiting subregulation (2)(b), a change at the workplace includes— (a) a change to the workplace itself or any aspect of the work environment; or (b) a change to a system of work, a process or a procedure. (4) A health and safety representative for workers at a workplace may request a review of a control measure if the representative reasonably believes that— (a) a circumstance referred to in subregulation (2)(a), (b), (c) or (d) affects or may affect the health and safety of a member of the work group represented by the health and safety representative; and (b) the duty holder has not adequately reviewed the control measure in response to the circumstance. Part 2—General workplace management Division 1—Information, training and instruction 39—Provision of information, training and instruction (1) This regulation applies for the purposes of section 19 of the Act to a person conducting a business or undertaking. (2) The person must ensure that information, training and instruction provided to a worker is suitable and adequate having regard to— (a) the nature of the work carried out by the worker; and (b) the nature of the risks associated with the work at the time the information, training or instruction is provided; and (c) the control measures implemented. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the information, training and instruction provided to a worker is provided in a way that is readily understandable by any person to whom it is provided. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 2—General working environment 40—Duty in relation to general workplace facilities A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the following: (a) the layout of the workplace allows, and the workplace is maintained so as to allow, for persons to enter and exit and to move about without risk to health and safety, both under normal working conditions and in an emergency; (b) work areas have space for work to be carried out without risk to health and safety; (c) floors and other surfaces are designed, installed and maintained to allow work to be carried out without risk to health and safety; (d) lighting enables— (i) each worker to carry out work without risk to health and safety; and (ii) persons to move within the workplace without risk to health and safety; and (iii) safe evacuation in an emergency; (e) ventilation enables workers to carry out work without risk to health and safety; (f) workers carrying out work in extremes of heat or cold are able to carry out work without risk to health and safety; (g) work in relation to or near essential services does not give rise to a risk to the health and safety of persons at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 41—Duty to provide and maintain adequate and accessible facilities (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the provision of adequate facilities for workers, including toilets, drinking water, washing facilities and eating facilities. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the facilities provided under subregulation (1) are maintained so as to be— (a) in good working order; and (b) clean, safe and accessible. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) For the purposes of this regulation, a person conducting a business or undertaking must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) the nature of the work being carried out at the workplace; (b) the nature of the hazards at the workplace; (c) the size, location and nature of the workplace; (d) the number and composition of the workers at the workplace. Division 3—First aid 42—Duty to provide first aid (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure— (a) the provision of first aid equipment for the workplace; and (b) that each worker at the workplace has access to the equipment; and (c) access to facilities for the administration of first aid. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that— (a) an adequate number of workers are trained to administer first aid at the workplace; or (b) workers have access to an adequate number of other persons who have been trained to administer first aid. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) For the purposes of this regulation, the person conducting the business or undertaking must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) the nature of the work being carried out at the workplace; (b) the nature of the hazards at the workplace; (c) the size and location of the workplace; (d) the number and composition of the workers and other persons at the workplace. Division 4—Emergency plans 43—Duty to prepare, maintain and implement emergency plan (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that an emergency plan is prepared for the workplace, that provides for the following: (a) emergency procedures, including— (i) an effective response to an emergency; and (ii) evacuation procedures; and (iii) notifying emergency service organisations at the earliest opportunity; and (iv) medical treatment and assistance; and (v) effective communication between the person authorised by the person conducting the business or undertaking to coordinate the emergency response and all persons at the workplace; (b) testing of the emergency procedures, including the frequency of testing; (c) information, training and instruction to relevant workers in relation to implementing the emergency procedures. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must maintain the emergency plan for the workplace so that it remains effective. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (1) and (2), the person conducting the business or undertaking must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) the nature of the work being carried out at the workplace; (b) the nature of the hazards at the workplace; (c) the size and location of the workplace; (d) the number and composition of the workers and other persons at the workplace. (4) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must implement the emergency plan for the workplace in the event of an emergency. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 5—Personal protective equipment 44—Provision to workers and use of personal protective equipment (1) This regulation applies if personal protective equipment is to be used to minimise a risk to health and safety in relation to work at a workplace in accordance with regulation 36. (2) The person conducting a business or undertaking who directs the carrying out of work must provide the personal protective equipment to workers at the workplace, unless the personal protective equipment has been provided by another person conducting a business or undertaking. Example— Equipment that has been provided by a labour hire company. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person conducting the business or undertaking who directs the carrying out of work must ensure that personal protective equipment provided under subregulation (2) is— (a) selected to minimise risk to health and safety, including by ensuring that the equipment is— (i) suitable having regard to the nature of the work and any hazard associated with the work; and (ii) a suitable size and fit and reasonably comfortable for the worker who is to use or wear it; and (b) maintained, repaired or replaced so that it continues to minimise risk to the worker who uses it, including by ensuring that the equipment is— (i) clean and hygienic; and (ii) in good working order; and (c) used or worn by the worker, so far as is reasonably practicable. (4) The person conducting a business or undertaking who directs the carrying out of work must provide the worker with information, training and instruction in the— (a) proper use and wearing of personal protective equipment; and (b) storage and maintenance of personal protective equipment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— A person conducting a business or undertaking must not charge or impose a levy on a worker for the provision of personal protective equipment (see section 273 of the Act). 45—Personal protective equipment used by other persons The person conducting a business or undertaking who directs the carrying out of work must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that— (a) personal protective equipment to be used or worn by any person other than a worker at the workplace is capable of minimising risk to the person's health and safety; and (b) the person uses or wears the equipment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 46—Duties of worker (1) This regulation applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking provides a worker with personal protective equipment. (2) The worker must, so far as the worker is reasonably able, use or wear the equipment in accordance with any information, training or reasonable instruction by the person conducting the business or undertaking. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) The worker must not intentionally misuse or damage the equipment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (4) The worker must inform the person conducting the business or undertaking of any damage to, defect in or need to clean or decontaminate any of the equipment of which the worker becomes aware. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 47—Duty of person other than worker A person other than a worker must wear personal protective equipment at a workplace in accordance with any information, training or reasonable instruction provided by the person conducting the business or undertaking at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Division 6—Remote or isolated work 48—Remote or isolated work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage risks to the health and safety of a worker associated with remote or isolated work in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) In minimising risks to the health and safety of a worker associated with remote or isolated work, a person conducting a business or undertaking must provide a system of work that includes effective communication with the worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. (3) In this regulation— assistance includes rescue, medical assistance and the attendance of emergency service workers; remote or isolated work, in relation to a worker, means work that is isolated from the assistance of other persons because of location, time or the nature of the work. Division 7—Managing risks from airborne contaminants 49—Ensuring exposure standards for substances and mixtures not exceeded A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that no person at the workplace is exposed to a substance or mixture in an airborne concentration that exceeds the exposure standard for the substance or mixture. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 50—Monitoring airborne contaminant levels (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that air monitoring is carried out to determine the airborne concentration of a substance or mixture at the workplace to which an exposure standard applies if— (a) the person is not certain on reasonable grounds whether or not the airborne concentration of the substance or mixture at the workplace exceeds the relevant exposure standard; or (b) monitoring is necessary to determine whether there is a risk to health. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that the results of air monitoring carried out under subregulation (1) are recorded, and kept for 30 years after the date the record is made. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that the results of air monitoring carried out under subregulation (1) are readily accessible to persons at the workplace who may be exposed to the substance or mixture. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. Division 8—Hazardous atmospheres 51—Managing risks to health and safety (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage risks to health and safety associated with a hazardous atmosphere at the workplace, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) An atmosphere is a hazardous atmosphere if— (a) the atmosphere does not have a safe oxygen level; or (b) the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere increases the fire risk; or (c) the concentration of flammable gas, vapour, mist, or fumes exceeds 5% of the LEL for the gas, vapour, mist or fumes; or (d) combustible dust is present in a quantity and form that would result in a hazardous area. 52—Ignition sources (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage risks to health and safety associated with an ignition source in a hazardous atmosphere at the workplace, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) This regulation does not apply if the ignition source is part of a deliberate process or activity at the workplace. Division 9—Storage of flammable or combustible substances 53—Flammable and combustible material not to be accumulated (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that, if flammable or combustible substances are kept at the workplace, the substances are kept at the lowest practicable quantity for the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In this regulation— flammable or combustible substances include— (a) flammable and combustible liquids, including waste liquids, in containers, whether empty or full; and (b) gas cylinders, whether empty or full. Division 10—Falling objects 54—Management of risk of falling objects A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety associated with an object falling on a person if the falling object is reasonably likely to injure the person. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). 55—Minimising risk associated with falling objects (1) This regulation applies if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk referred to in regulation 54. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking at a workplace must minimise the risk of an object falling on a person by providing adequate protection against the risk in accordance with this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person provides adequate protection against the risk if the person provides and maintains a safe system of work, including— (a) preventing an object from falling freely, so far as is reasonably practicable; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to prevent an object from falling freely—providing, so far as is reasonably practicable, a system to arrest the fall of a falling object. Examples— 1 Providing a secure barrier. 2 Providing a safe means of raising and lowering objects. 3 Providing an exclusion zone persons are prohibited from entering. Division 11—Psychosocial risks 55A—Meaning of psychosocial hazard A psychosocial hazard is a hazard that— (a) arises from, or relates to— (i) the design or management of work; or (ii) a work environment; or (iii) plant at a workplace; or (iv) workplace interactions or behaviours; and (b) may cause psychological harm (whether or not it may also cause physical harm). 55B—Meaning of psychosocial risk A psychosocial risk is a risk to the health or safety of a worker or other person arising from a psychosocial hazard. 55C—Managing psychosocial risks A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage psychosocial risks in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). 55D—Control measures (1) This regulation applies to a person conducting a business or undertaking who implements control measures to manage psychosocial risks in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. (2) In determining the control measures to implement, the person must have regard to all relevant matters, including— (a) the duration, frequency and severity of the exposure of workers and other persons to the psychosocial hazards; and (b) how the psychosocial hazards may interact or combine; and (c) the design of work, including job demands and tasks; and (d) the systems of work, including how work is managed, organised and supported; and (e) the design and layout, and environmental conditions, of the workplace, including the provision of— (i) safe means of entering and exiting the workplace; and (ii) facilities for the welfare of workers; and (f) the design and layout, and environmental conditions, of workers' accommodation; and (g) the plant, substances and structures at the workplace; and (h) workplace interactions or behaviours; and (i) the information, training, instruction and supervision provided to workers. (3) In this regulation— workers' accommodation means premises to which section 19(4) of the Act applies. Chapter 4—Hazardous work Part 1—Noise 56—Meaning of exposure standard for noise (1) In these regulations— exposure standard for noise, in relation to a person, means— (a) LAeq,8h of 85 dB(A); or (b) LC,peak of 140 dB(C). (2) In this regulation— LAeq,8h means the eight‑hour equivalent continuous A‑weighted sound pressure level in decibels (dB(A)) referenced to 20 micropascals, determined in accordance with AS/NZS 1269.1:2005 (Occupational noise management—Measurement and assessment of noise immission and exposure); LC,peak means the C‑weighted peak sound pressure level in decibels (dB(C)) referenced to 20 micropascals, determined in accordance with AS/NZS 1269.1:2005 (Occupational noise management—Measurement and assessment of noise immission and exposure). 57—Managing risk of hearing loss from noise (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety relating to the risk of hearing loss associated with noise. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that the noise that a worker is exposed to at the workplace does not exceed the exposure standard for noise. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 58—Audiometric testing (1) This regulation applies in relation to a worker who is frequently required by the person conducting the business or undertaking to use personal protective equipment to protect the worker from the risk of hearing loss associated with noise that exceeds the exposure standard for noise. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking who provides the personal protective equipment as a control measure must provide audiometric testing for the worker— (a) within 3 months of the worker commencing the work; and (b) in any event, at least every 2 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In this regulation— audiometric testing means the testing and measurement of the hearing threshold levels of each ear of a person by means of pure tone air conduction threshold tests. 59—Duties of designers, manufacturers, importers and suppliers of plant (1) A designer of plant must ensure that the plant is designed so that its noise emission is as low as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A designer of plant must give to each person who is provided with the design for the purpose of giving effect to it adequate information about— (a) the noise emission values of the plant; and (b) the operating conditions of the plant when noise emission is to be measured; and (c) the methods the designer has used to measure the noise emission of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) A manufacturer of plant must ensure that the plant is manufactured so that its noise emission is as low as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) A manufacturer of plant must give to each person to whom the manufacturer provides the plant adequate information about— (a) the noise emission values of the plant; and (b) the operating conditions of the plant when noise emission is to be measured; and (c) the methods the manufacturer has used to measure the noise emission of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) An importer of plant must take all reasonable steps to— (a) obtain information about— (i) the noise emission values of the plant; and (ii) the operating conditions of the plant when noise emission is to be measured; and (iii) the methods the designer or manufacturer has used to measure the noise emission of the plant; and (b) give that information to any person to whom the importer supplies the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) A supplier of plant must take all reasonable steps to— (a) obtain the information the designer, manufacturer or importer is required to give a supplier under subregulation (2), (4) or (5); and (b) give that information to any person to whom the supplier supplies the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Part 2—Hazardous manual tasks 60—Managing risks to health and safety (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage risks to health and safety relating to a musculoskeletal disorder associated with a hazardous manual task, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) In determining the control measures to implement under subregulation (1), the person conducting the business or undertaking must have regard to all relevant matters that may contribute to a musculoskeletal disorder, including— (a) postures, movements, forces and vibration relating to the hazardous manual task; and (b) the duration and frequency of the hazardous manual task; and (c) workplace environmental conditions that may affect the hazardous manual task or the worker performing it; and (d) the design of the work area; and (e) the layout of the workplace; and (f) the systems of work used; and (g) the nature, size, weight or number of persons, animals or things involved in carrying out the hazardous manual task. 61—Duties of designers, manufacturers, importers and suppliers of plant or structures (1) A designer of plant or a structure must ensure that the plant or structure is designed so as to eliminate the need for any hazardous manual task to be carried out in connection with the plant or structure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If it is not reasonably practicable to comply with subregulation (1), the designer must ensure that the plant or structure is designed so that the need for any hazardous manual task to be carried out in connection with the plant or structure is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The designer must give to each person who is provided with the design for the purposes of giving effect to it adequate information about the features of the plant or structure that eliminate or minimise the need for any hazardous manual task to be carried out in connection with the plant or structure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) A manufacturer of plant or a structure must ensure that the plant or structure is manufactured so as to eliminate the need for any hazardous manual task to be carried out in connection with the plant or structure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) If it is not reasonably practicable to comply with subregulation (4), the manufacturer must ensure that the plant or structure is manufactured so that the need for any hazardous manual task to be carried out in connection with the plant or structure is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) The manufacturer must give to each person to whom the manufacturer provides the plant or structure adequate information about the features of the plant or structure that eliminate or minimise the need for any hazardous manual task to be carried out in connection with the plant or structure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (7) An importer of plant or a structure must take all reasonable steps to— (a) obtain the information the designer or manufacturer is required to give an importer under subregulation (3) or (6); and (b) give that information to any person to whom the importer supplies the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (8) A supplier of plant or a structure must take all reasonable steps to— (a) obtain the information the designer, manufacturer or importer is required to give a supplier under subregulation (3), (6) or (7); and (b) give that information to any person to whom the supplier supplies the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Part 3—Confined spaces Division 1—Preliminary 62—Confined spaces to which this Part applies (1) This Part applies to confined spaces that— (a) are entered by any person; or (b) are intended or likely to be entered by any person; or (c) could be entered inadvertently by any person. (2) In this Part, a reference to a confined space in relation to a person conducting a business or undertaking is a reference to a confined space that is under the person's management or control. 63—Application to emergency service workers Regulations 67 and 68 do not apply to the entry into a confined space by an emergency service worker if, at the direction of the emergency service organisation, the worker is— (a) rescuing a person from the space; or (b) providing first aid to a person in the space. Division 2—Duties of designer, manufacturer, importer, supplier, installer and constructor of plant or structure 64—Duty to eliminate or minimise risk (1) This regulation applies in relation to plant or a structure that includes a space that is, or is intended to be, a confined space. (2) A designer, manufacturer, importer or supplier of the plant or structure, and a person who installs or constructs the plant or structure, must ensure that— (a) the need for any person to enter the space and the risk of a person inadvertently entering the space are eliminated, so far as is reasonably practicable; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the need to enter the space or the risk of a person inadvertently entering the space— (i) the need or risk is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable; and (ii) the space is designed with a safe means of entry and exit; and (iii) the risk to the health and safety of any person who enters the space is eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable or, if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk, the risk is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— WHS Act—sections 22, 23, 24, 25 or 26 (see regulation 9). Division 3—Duties of person conducting business or undertaking 65—Entry into confined space must comply with this Division A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a worker does not enter a confined space before this Division has been complied with in relation to that space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 66—Managing risks to health and safety (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety associated with a confined space at a workplace including risks associated with entering, working in, on or in the vicinity of the confined space (including a risk of a person inadvertently entering the confined space). Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a risk assessment is conducted by a competent person for the purposes of subregulation (1). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) The person must ensure that a risk assessment conducted under subregulation (2) is recorded in writing. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (4) For the purposes of subregulations (1) and (2), the person conducting a business or undertaking must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) whether the work can be carried out without the need to enter the confined space; (b) the nature of the confined space; (c) if the hazard is associated with the concentration of oxygen or the concentration of airborne contaminants in the confined space—any change that may occur in that concentration; (d) the work required to be carried out in the confined space, the range of methods by which the work can be carried out and the proposed method of working; (e) the type of emergency procedures, including rescue procedures, required. (5) The person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a risk assessment under this regulation is reviewed and as necessary revised by a competent person to reflect any review and revision of control measures under Chapter 3 Part 1. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 67—Confined space entry permit (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct a worker to enter a confined space to carry out work unless the person has issued a confined space entry permit for the work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A confined space entry permit must— (a) be completed by a competent person; and (b) be in writing; and (c) specify the following: (i) the confined space to which the permit relates; (ii) the names of persons permitted to enter the space; (iii) the period of time during which the work in the space will be carried out; (iv) measures to control risk associated with the proposed work in the space; and (d) contain space for an acknowledgement that work in the confined space has been completed and that all persons have left the confined space. (3) The control measures specified in a confined space permit must— (a) be based on a risk assessment conducted under regulation 66; and (b) include— (i) control measures to be implemented for safe entry; and (ii) details of the system of work provided under regulation 69. (4) The person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that, when the work for which the entry permit was issued is completed— (a) all workers leave the confined space; and (b) the acknowledgement referred to in subregulation (2)(d) is completed by the competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 68—Signage (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that signs that comply with subregulation (2) are erected— (a) immediately before work in a confined space commences and while the work is being carried out; and (b) while work is being carried out in preparation for, and in the completion of, work in a confined space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) The signs must— (a) identify the confined space; and (b) inform workers that they must not enter the space unless they have a confined space entry permit; and (c) be clear and prominently located next to each entry to the space. 69—Communication and safety monitoring A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a worker does not enter a confined space to carry out work unless the person provides a system of work that includes— (a) continuous communication with the worker from outside the space; and (b) monitoring of conditions within the space by a standby person who is in the vicinity of the space and, if practicable, observing the work being carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 70—Specific control—connected plant and services (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must, so far as is reasonably practicable, eliminate any risk associated with work in a confined space in either of the following circumstances: (a) the introduction of any substance or condition into the space from or by any plant or services connected to the space; (b) the activation or energising in any way of any plant or services connected to the space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) If it is not reasonably practicable for the person to eliminate risk under subregulation (1), the person must minimise that risk so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 71—Specific control—atmosphere (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure, in relation to work in a confined space, that— (a) purging or ventilation of any contaminant in the atmosphere of the space is carried out, so far as is reasonably practicable; and (b) pure oxygen or gas mixtures with oxygen in a concentration exceeding 21% by volume are not used for purging or ventilation of any airborne contaminant in the space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that, while work is being carried out in a confined space— (a) the atmosphere of the space has a safe oxygen level; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to comply with paragraph (a) and the atmosphere in the space has an oxygen level less than 19.5% by volume—any worker carrying out work in the space is provided with air supplied respiratory equipment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In this regulation— purging means the method used to displace any contaminant from a confined space. Notes— 1 Regulation 44 applies to the use of personal protective equipment, including the equipment provided under subregulation (2). 2 Regulation 50 also applies to airborne contaminants. 72—Specific control—flammable gases and vapours (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that while work is being carried out in a confined space, the concentration of any flammable gas, vapour or mist in the atmosphere of the space is less than 5% of its LEL. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. (2) If it is not reasonably practicable to limit the atmospheric concentration of a flammable gas, vapour or mist in a confined space to less than 5% of its LEL and the atmospheric concentration of the flammable gas, vapour or mist in the space is— (a) equal to or greater than 5% but less than 10% of its LEL—the person must ensure that any worker is immediately removed from the space unless a suitably calibrated, continuous‑monitoring flammable gas detector is used in the space; or (b) equal to or greater than 10% of its LEL—the person must ensure that any worker is immediately removed from the space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 73—Specific control—fire and explosion A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that an ignition source is not introduced into a confined space (from outside or within the space) if there is a possibility of the ignition source causing a fire or explosion in the place. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 74—Emergency procedures (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must— (a) establish first aid procedures and rescue procedures to be followed in the event of an emergency in a confined space; and (b) ensure that the procedures are practised as necessary to ensure that they are efficient and effective. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that first aid and rescue procedures are initiated from outside the confined space as soon as practicable in an emergency. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure, in relation to any confined space, that— (a) the entry and exit openings of the confined space are large enough to allow emergency access; and (b) the entry and exit openings of the space are not obstructed; and (c) plant, equipment and personal protective equipment provided for first aid or emergency rescue are maintained in good working order. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— See Chapter 3 Part 2 for general provisions relating to first aid, personal protective equipment and emergency plans. 75—Personal protective equipment in emergencies (1) This regulation applies in relation to a worker who is to enter a confined space in order to carry out first aid or rescue procedures in an emergency. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking for which the worker is carrying out work must ensure that air supplied respiratory equipment is available for use by, and is provided to, the worker in an emergency in which— (a) the atmosphere in the confined space does not have a safe oxygen level; or (b) the atmosphere in the space has a harmful concentration of an airborne contaminant; or (c) there is a serious risk of the atmosphere in the space becoming affected in the way referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) while the worker is in the space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person conducting the business or undertaking for which the worker is carrying out work must ensure that suitable personal protective equipment is available for use by, and is provided to, the worker in an emergency in which— (a) an engulfment has occurred inside the confined space; or (b) there is a serious risk of an engulfment occurring while the worker is in the space. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— Regulation 44 applies to the use of personal protective equipment, including the equipment provided under this regulation. 76—Information, training and instruction for workers (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that relevant workers are provided with suitable and adequate information, training and instruction in relation to the following: (a) the nature of all hazards relating to a confined space; (b) the need for, and the appropriate use of, control measures to control risks to health and safety associated with those hazards; (c) the selection, fit, use, wearing, testing, storage and maintenance of any personal protective equipment; (d) the contents of any confined space entry permit that may be issued in relation to work carried out by the worker in a confined space; (e) emergency procedures. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that a record of all training provided to a worker under this regulation is kept for 2 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) In subregulation (1)— relevant worker means— (a) a worker who, in carrying out work for the business or undertaking, could— (i) enter or work in a confined space; or (ii) carry out any function in relation to work in a confined space or the emergency procedures established under regulation 74, but who is not required to enter the space; or (b) any person supervising a worker referred to in paragraph (a). 77—Confined space entry permit and risk assessment must be kept (1) This regulation applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking— (a) prepares a risk assessment under regulation 66; or (b) issues a confined space entry permit under regulation 67. (2) Subject to subregulation (3), the person must keep— (a) a copy of the risk assessment until at least 28 days after the work to which it relates is completed; and (b) a copy of the confined space entry permit at least until the work to which it relates is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) If a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the work to which the assessment or permit relates, the person must keep the copy of the assessment or permit (as applicable) for at least 2 years after the incident occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the assessment or permit must be kept under this regulation, a copy is available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (5) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the assessment or permit must be kept under this regulation, a copy is available to any relevant worker on request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Part 4—Falls 78—Management of risk of fall (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety associated with a fall by a person from one level to another that is reasonably likely to cause injury to the person or any other person. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) Subregulation (1) includes the risk of a fall— (a) in or on an elevated workplace from which a person could fall; or (b) in the vicinity of an opening through which a person could fall; or (c) in the vicinity of an edge over which a person could fall; or (d) on a surface through which a person could fall; or (e) in any other place from which a person could fall. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that any work that involves the risk of a fall to which subregulation (1) applies is carried out on the ground or on a solid construction. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) A person conducting a business or undertaking must provide safe means of access to and exit from— (a) the workplace; and (b) any area within the workplace referred to in subregulation (2). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) In this regulation— solid construction means an area that has— (a) a surface that is structurally capable of supporting all persons and things that may be located or placed on it; and (b) barriers around its perimeter and any openings to prevent a fall; and (c) an even and readily negotiable surface and gradient; and (d) a safe means of entry and exit. 79—Specific requirements to minimise risk of fall (1) This regulation applies if it is not reasonably practicable for the person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace to eliminate the risk of a fall to which regulation 78 applies. (2) The person must minimise the risk of a fall by providing adequate protection against the risk in accordance with this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person provides adequate protection against the risk if the person provides and maintains a safe system of work, including by— (a) providing a fall prevention device if it is reasonably practicable to do so; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to provide a fall prevention device, providing a work positioning system; or (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to comply with either paragraph (a) or (b), providing a fall arrest system, so far as is reasonably practicable. Examples— A safe system of work could include— • providing temporary work platforms; • providing training in relation to the risks involved in work at the workplace; • providing safe work procedures, safe sequencing of work, safe use of ladders, permit systems and appropriate signs. Note— A combination of the controls set out in this subregulation may be used to minimise risks so far as is practicable if a single control is not sufficient for the purpose. (4) This regulation does not apply in relation to the following work: (a) the performance of stunt work; (b) the performance of acrobatics; (c) a theatrical performance; (d) a sporting or athletic activity; (e) horse riding. Note— Regulation 36 applies to the management of risk in relation to this work. (5) In this regulation— fall prevention device includes— (a) a secure fence; and (b) edge protection; and (c) working platforms; and (d) covers. Note— See regulation 5 for definitions of fall arrest system and work positioning system. 80—Emergency and rescue procedures (1) This regulation applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking provides a fall arrest system as a control risk measure. (2) Without limiting regulation 79, the person must establish emergency procedures, including rescue procedures, in relation to the use of the fall arrest system. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure that the emergency procedures are tested so that they are effective. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The person must provide relevant workers with suitable and adequate information, training and instruction in relation to the emergency procedures. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) In this regulation— relevant worker means— (a) a worker who, in carrying out work in the business or undertaking, uses or is to use a fall arrest system; and (b) a worker who may be involved in initiating or implementing the emergency procedures. Part 5—High risk work Division 1—Licensing of high risk work Subdivision 1—Requirement to be licensed 81—Licence required to carry out high risk work A person must not carry out a class of high risk work unless the person holds a high risk work licence for that class of high risk work except as provided in regulation 82. Notes— 1 See section 43 of the Act. 2 Schedule 3 sets out the high risk work licences and classes of high risk work that are within the scope of each licence. Schedule 4 sets out the qualifications required for a high risk work licence. 82—Exceptions (1) A person who carries out high risk work is not required to be licensed if the work is carried out— (a) in the course of training towards a certification in order to be licensed to carry out the high risk work; and (b) under the supervision of a person who is licensed to carry out the high risk work. (1a) A person who holds a certification in relation to a specified VET course for high risk work is not required to be licensed to carry out the work— (a) for 60 days after the certification is issued; and (b) if the person applies for the relevant high risk work licence within that 60 day period, until— (i) the person is granted the licence; or (ii) the expiry of 28 days after the person is given written notice under regulation 91(2) of a decision to refuse to grant the licence. (1b) A person who carries out high risk work is not required to be licensed if the work is carried out while an accredited assessor is conducting an assessment of the person's competency in relation to the work. (2) A person who carries out high risk work involving plant is not required to be licensed if— (a) the work is carried out at a workplace solely for the purpose of the manufacture, testing, trialling, installation, commissioning, maintenance, servicing, repair, alteration, demolition or disposal of the plant at that workplace or moving the plant while unloaded within the workplace; and (b) the plant is operated or used without a load except when standard weight loads with predetermined fixing points are used for calibration of the plant. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (2)(a), moving includes operating the plant in order to load the plant onto, or unload it from, a vehicle or equipment used to move it. (4) A person who carries out high risk work with a crane or hoist is not required to be licensed as a crane operator if— (a) the work is limited to setting up or dismantling the crane or hoist; and (b) the person carrying out the work holds a licence in relation to rigging, which qualifies the person to carry out the work. Note— See Schedule 3 for the classes of crane operator licence. (5) A person who carries out high risk work with a heritage boiler is not required to be licensed as a boiler operator. 83—Recognition of high risk work licences in other jurisdictions (1) In this Subdivision, a reference to a high risk work licence includes a reference to an equivalent licence— (a) that was granted under a corresponding WHS law; and (b) that is being used in accordance with the terms and conditions under which it was granted. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a licence that is suspended or cancelled or has expired in the corresponding jurisdiction. 84—Duty of person conducting business or undertaking to ensure direct supervision (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a person supervising the work of a person carrying out high risk work as required by regulation 82(1) provides direct supervision of the person except in the circumstances set out in subregulation (2). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Direct supervision of a person is not required if— (a) the nature or circumstances of a particular task make direct supervision impracticable or unnecessary; and (b) the reduced level of supervision will not place the health or safety of the supervised person or any other person at risk. (3) In this regulation— direct supervision of a person means the oversight by the supervising person of the work of that person for the purposes of— (a) directing, demonstrating, monitoring and checking the person's work in a way that is appropriate to the person's level of competency; and (b) ensuring a capacity to respond in an emergency situation. 85—Evidence of licence—duty of person conducting business or undertaking (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a worker to carry out high risk work for which a high risk work licence is required unless the person sees written evidence provided by the worker that the worker has the relevant high risk work licence for that work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a worker to carry out high risk work in the circumstances referred to in regulation 82(1) unless the person sees written evidence provided by the worker that the worker is undertaking the course of training referred to in regulation 82(1)(a). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2a) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a worker to carry out high risk work in the circumstances referred to in regulation 82(1a) unless the person sees written evidence provided by the worker that the worker— (a) in the circumstances referred to in regulation 82(1a)(a)—holds a certification referred to in regulation 82(1a); and (b) in the circumstances referred to in regulation 82(1a)(b)— (i) holds a certification referred to in regulation 82(1a); and (ii) has applied for the relevant licence within the period referred to in regulation 82(1a)(b). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a worker to supervise high risk work as referred to in regulations 82(1) and 84 unless the person sees written evidence that the worker holds the relevant high risk work licence for that high risk work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (4) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must keep a record of the written evidence provided— (a) under subregulation (1) or (2)—for at least 1 year after the high risk work is carried out; (b) under subregulation (3)—for at least 1 year after the last occasion on which the worker performs the supervision work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Subdivision 2—Licensing process 86—Who may apply for a licence Only a person who holds a qualification set out in Schedule 4 may apply for a high risk work licence. 87—Application for high risk work licence (1) An application for a high risk work licence must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the applicant's name and residential address; (b) a photograph of the applicant in the form required by the regulator; (c) evidence of the applicant's age; (d) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (e) the class of high risk work licence to which the application relates; (f) a copy of a certification— (i) that is held by the applicant in relation to the specified VET course, or each of the specified VET courses, for the high risk work licence applied for; and (ii) that was issued not more than 60 days before the application is made; (g) a declaration that the applicant does not hold an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law; (h) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant has ever been convicted or found guilty of any offence under the Act or these regulations or under any corresponding WHS law; (i) details of any conviction or finding of guilt declared under paragraph (h); (j) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant has ever entered into an enforceable undertaking under the Act or under any corresponding WHS law; (k) details of any enforceable undertaking declared under paragraph (j); (l) if the applicant has previously been refused an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration giving details of that refusal; (m) if the applicant has previously held an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration— (i) describing any condition imposed on that licence; and (ii) stating whether or not that licence had been suspended or cancelled, and, if so, whether or not the applicant had been disqualified from applying for any licence; and (iii) giving details of any suspension, cancellation or disqualification. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 88—Additional information (1) If an application for a high risk work licence does not contain sufficient information to enable the regulator to make a decision whether or not to grant the licence, the regulator may ask the applicant to provide additional information. (2) A request for additional information must— (a) specify the date (not being less than 28 days after the request) by which the additional information is to be given; and (b) be confirmed in writing. (3) If an applicant does not provide the additional information by the date specified, the application is to be taken to have been withdrawn. (4) The regulator may make more than 1 request for additional information under this regulation. 89—Decision on application (1) Subject to subregulation (3), the regulator must grant a high risk work licence if satisfied about the matters referred to in subregulation (2). (2) The regulator must be satisfied about the following: (a) the application has been made in accordance with these regulations; (b) the applicant does not hold an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law unless that licence is due for renewal; (c) the applicant— (i) resides in this State; or (ii) resides outside this State and circumstances exist that justify the grant of the licence; (d) the applicant is at least 18 years of age; (e) the applicant has provided the certification required under regulation 87(2)(f); (f) the applicant is able to carry out the work to which the licence relates safely and competently. (3) The regulator must refuse to grant a high risk work licence if satisfied that— (a) the applicant is disqualified under a corresponding WHS law from holding an equivalent licence; or (b) the applicant, in making the application, has— (i) given information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given. (4) If the regulator decides to grant the licence, it must notify the applicant within 14 days after making the decision. (5) If the regulator does not make a decision within 120 days after receiving the application or the additional information requested under regulation 88, the regulator is taken to have refused to grant the licence applied for. Note— A refusal to grant a high risk work licence (including under subregulation (5)) is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 90—Matters to be taken into account For the purposes of regulation 89(2)(f), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law of which the applicant has been convicted or found guilty; (b) in relation to any equivalent licence applied for or held by the applicant under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the licence; and (ii) any condition imposed on the licence if granted; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any licence; (c) any enforceable undertaking the applicant has entered into under the Act or a corresponding WHS law; (d) the applicant's record in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. 91—Refusal to grant high risk work licence—process (1) If the regulator proposes to refuse to grant a licence, the regulator must give a written notice to the applicant— (a) informing the applicant of the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the applicant that the applicant may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1)(b), the regulator must— (a) if the applicant has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal to grant the licence—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the applicant has made a submission—decide whether to grant or refuse to grant the licence; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the applicant written notice of the decision, including the reasons for the decision. Note— A decision to refuse to grant a licence is a reviewable decision (regulation 676). 91A—Conditions of licence (1) The regulator may impose any conditions the regulator considers appropriate on a high risk work licence. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions in relation to 1 or more of the following: (a) control measures that must be implemented in relation to the carrying out of work or activities under the licence; (b) the circumstances in which work or activities authorised by the licence may be carried out. (3) The regulator must give the licence holder written notice of any conditions imposed on the licence. Notes— 1 A person must comply with the conditions of a licence (see section 45 of the Act). 2 A decision to impose a condition on a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 92—Duration of licence Subject to this Division, a high risk work licence takes effect on the day it is granted and, unless cancelled earlier, expires 5 years after that day. 93—Licence document (1) If the regulator grants a high risk work licence, the regulator must issue to the applicant a licence document in the form determined by the regulator. (2) The licence document must include the following: (a) the name of the licence holder; (b) a photograph of the licence holder; (c) the date of birth of the licence holder; (d) a copy of the signature of the licence holder or provision for the inclusion of a copy signature; (e) the class of high risk work licence and a description of the work within the scope of the licence; (f) the date on which the licence was granted; (g) the expiry date of the licence. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (2)(e), if the regulator grants more than 1 class of high risk work licence to a person, the licence document must contain a description of each class of licence and the work that is within the scope of each licence. (4) If a licence holder holds more than one high risk work licence, the regulator may issue to the licence holder 1 licence document in relation to some or all those licences. (5) Despite regulation 92, if a licence document is issued under subregulation (4), the licences to which that licence document related expire on the date that the first of those licences expires. 94—Licence document to be available (1) A licence holder must keep the licence document available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the licence document is not in the licence holder's possession because— (a) it has been returned to the regulator under regulation 97; or (b) the licence holder has applied for, but has not received, a replacement licence document under regulation 98. 95—Reassessment of competency of licence holder The regulator may direct a licence holder to obtain a reassessment of the competency of the licence holder to carry out the high risk work covered by the licence if the regulator reasonably believes that the licence holder may not be competent to carry out that work. Examples— 1 The training or competency assessment of the licence holder did not meet the standard required to hold the licence. 2 The regulator receives information that the licence holder has carried out high risk work incompetently. Subdivision 3—Amendment of licence document 96—Notice of change of address The licence holder of a high risk work licence must notify the regulator of a change of residential address, within 14 days of the change occurring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 97—Licence holder to return licence If a high risk work licence is amended, the licence holder must return the licence document to the regulator for amendment at the written request of the regulator and within the time specified in the request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 98—Replacement licence document (1) A licence holder must notify the regulator as soon as practicable if the licence document is lost, stolen or destroyed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If a licence document is lost, stolen or destroyed, the licence holder may apply to the regulator for a replacement document. Note— A licence holder is required to keep the licence document available for inspection (see regulation 94). (3) An application for a replacement licence document must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (4) The application must— (a) include a declaration describing the circumstances in which the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed; and Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (c) be accompanied by the relevant fee. (5) The regulator must issue a replacement licence document if satisfied that the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed. (6) If the regulator refuses to issue a replacement licence document, it must give the licence holder written notice of this decision, including the reasons for the decision, within 14 days after making the decision. Note— A decision to refuse to replace a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 99—Voluntary surrender of licence (1) A licence holder may voluntarily surrender the licence document to the regulator. (2) The licence expires on the surrender of the licence document. Subdivision 4—Renewal of high risk work licence 100—Regulator may renew licence The regulator may renew a high risk work licence on application by the licence holder. 101—Application for renewal (1) An application for renewal of a high risk work licence must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the name and residential address of the applicant; (b) if required by the regulator, a photograph of the applicant in the form required by the regulator; (c) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (d) a declaration by the applicant that he or she has maintained his or her competency to carry out the high risk work, including by obtaining any reassessment directed under regulation 95. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. (4) The application must be made before the expiry of the licence. 102—Licence continues in force until application is decided If a licence holder applies under regulation 100 for the renewal of a high risk work licence, the licence is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this regulation, have expired until the licence holder is given notice of the decision on the application. 103—Renewal of expired licence (1) A person whose high risk work licence has expired may apply for a renewal of that licence— (a) within 12 months after the expiry of the licence; or (b) if the person satisfies the regulator that exceptional circumstances exist—within any longer period that the regulator allows. (2) An application under subregulation (1) must include a declaration that the information contained in the application is, to the best of the applicant's knowledge, true and correct. Note— 1 As the licence has expired, the applicant cannot carry out the work covered by the licence until the licence is renewed. An application made after a period referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) would be an application for a new licence under regulation 87. 2 See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. 104—Provisions relating to renewal of licence (1) For the purposes of this Subdivision— (a) regulation 88 applies as if a reference in that regulation to an application for a licence were a reference to an application to renew a licence; and (b) regulations 89 (except subregulation (5)), 90, 91A and 92 apply as if a reference in those regulations to the grant of a licence were a reference to the renewal of a licence; and (c) regulation 91 applies as if a reference in that regulation to a refusal to grant a licence were a reference to a refusal to renew a licence. (2) The regulator may renew a high risk work licence granted to a person under a corresponding WHS law unless that licence is renewed under that law. Note— A refusal to renew a high risk work licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 105—Status of licence during review (1) This regulation applies if the regulator gives a licence holder written notice of its decision to refuse to renew the licence. (2) If the licence holder does not apply for internal review of the decision, the licence continues to have effect until the last of the following events: (a) the expiry of the licence; (b) the end of the period for applying for an internal review. (3) If the licence holder applies for an internal review of the decision, the licence continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the licence holder withdraws the application for review; (b) the regulator makes a decision on the review. (4) If the licence holder does not apply for an external review, the licence continues to have effect until the end of the time for applying for an external review. (5) If the licence holder applies for an external review, the licence continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the licence holder withdraws the application for review; or (b) SAET makes a decision on the review. (6) The licence continues to have effect under this regulation even if its expiry date passes. Subdivision 5—Suspension and cancellation of high risk work licence 106—Suspension or cancellation of licence (1) The regulator may suspend or cancel a high risk work licence if satisfied about 1 or more of the following: (a) the licence holder has failed to take reasonable care to carry out the high risk work safely and competently; (ab) the licence holder has failed to comply with a condition of the licence; (b) the licence holder has failed to obtain a reassessment of competency directed under regulation 95; (c) the licence holder, in the application for the grant or renewal of the licence or on request by the regulator for additional information— (i) gave information that was false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given in that application or on that request; (d) the licence was granted or renewed on the basis of a certification that was obtained on the basis of the giving of false or misleading information by any person or body or that was obtained improperly through a breach of a condition of accreditation by the accredited assessor who conducted the competency assessment. (2) If the regulator suspends or cancels a licence, the regulator may disqualify the licence holder from applying for— (a) a further high risk work licence of the same class; or (b) another licence under these regulations to carry out work which requires skills that are the same as or similar to those required for the work authorised by the licence that has been suspended or cancelled. (3) If the regulator suspends a licence, the regulator may vary the conditions of the licence, including by imposing different or additional conditions. (4) A variation of conditions under subregulation (3) takes effect when the suspension of the licence ends. Notes— 1 A decision to suspend a licence, to cancel a licence or to disqualify the licence holder from applying for a further licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 2 A variation of licence conditions is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 107—Matters taken into account (1) In making a decision under regulation 106, the regulator must have regard to— (a) any submissions made by the licence holder under regulation 108; and (b) any advice received from a corresponding regulator. (2) For the purposes of regulation 106(1)(a), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law, of which the licence holder has been convicted or found guilty; (b) in relation to any equivalent licence applied for or held by the licence holder under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the licence; and (ii) any condition imposed on the licence, if granted; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any licence; (c) any enforceable undertaking the licence holder has entered into under the Act or a corresponding WHS law; (d) the licence holder's record in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. 108—Notice to and submissions by licence holder (1) Before suspending or cancelling a high risk work licence, the regulator must give the licence holder a written notice of— (a) the proposed suspension or cancellation; and (b) any proposed disqualification; and (c) any proposed variation of licence conditions. (2) A notice under subregulation (1) must— (a) outline all relevant allegations, facts and circumstances known to the regulator; and (b) advise the licence holder that the licence holder may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission in relation to the proposed suspension or cancellation, any proposed disqualification and any proposed variation of licence conditions. 109—Notice of decision (1) The regulator must give the licence holder written notice of a decision under regulation 106 to suspend or cancel a high risk work licence within 14 days after making the decision. (2) The notice must— (a) state that the licence is to be suspended or cancelled; and (b) if the licence is to be suspended, state— (i) when the suspension begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the suspension; and (iii) whether the licence holder is required to undergo retraining or reassessment or take any other action before the suspension ends; and (iv) whether or not the licence holder is disqualified from applying for a further licence during the suspension; and (v) if licence conditions are to be varied—the variation; and (vi) if licence conditions are to be varied—that the variation will take effect when the suspension ends; and (c) if the licence is to be cancelled, state— (i) when the cancellation takes effect; and (ii) the reasons for the cancellation; and (iii) whether or not the licence holder is disqualified from applying for a further licence; and (d) if the licence holder is to be disqualified from applying for a further licence, state— (i) when the disqualification begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the disqualification; and (iii) whether or not the licence holder is required to undergo retraining or reassessment or take any other action before the disqualification ends; and (iv) any other class of high risk work licence or other licence under these regulations the licence holder is disqualified from applying for during the period of suspension or disqualification; and (e) state when the licence document must be returned to the regulator. 110—Immediate suspension (1) The regulator may suspend a high risk work licence on a ground referred to in regulation 106 without giving notice under regulation 108 if satisfied that— (a) work carried out under the high risk work licence should cease because the work may involve an imminent serious risk to the health or safety of any person; or (b) a corresponding regulator has suspended an equivalent licence held by the licence holder under this regulation as applying in the corresponding jurisdiction. (2) If the regulator decides to suspend a licence under this regulation— (a) the regulator must give the licence holder written notice of the suspension and the reasons for the suspension; and (b) the suspension of the licence takes effect on the giving of the notice. (3) The regulator must then— (a) give notice under regulation 108 within 14 days after giving the notice under subregulation (2); and (b) make its decision under regulation 106. (4) If the regulator does not give notice under subregulation (3), the suspension ends at the end of the 14 day period. (5) If the regulator gives notice under subregulation (3), the licence remains suspended until the decision is made under regulation 106. 111—Licence holder to return licence document A licence holder, on receiving a notice under regulation 109, must return the licence document to the regulator in accordance with the notice. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 112—Regulator to return licence document after suspension When the period of suspension of a licence ends, the regulator must return the licence document to the licence holder within 14 days after the licence suspension ends. Division 2—Accreditation of assessors Subdivision 1—Requirement to be accredited 113—Accreditation required to assess competency for high risk work licence A person who is not an accredited assessor must not— (a) conduct a competency assessment; or (b) issue a notice of satisfactory assessment; or (c) in any other way hold himself or herself out to be an accredited assessor. Note— See section 43 of the Act. 114—Accredited assessor must act in accordance with accreditation (1) An accredited assessor must not conduct a competency assessment unless— (a) the competency assessment relates to a class of high risk work for which the assessor is accredited; and (b) the accredited assessor conducts the competency assessment for or on behalf of an RTO. (2) An accredited assessor must not issue a notice of satisfactory assessment unless the competency assessment relates to a class of high risk work for which the assessor is accredited. (3) An accredited assessor who conducts a competency assessment must do so in accordance with any conditions of accreditation imposed under regulation 121. (4) An accredited assessor who issues a notice of satisfactory assessment must do so in accordance with the conditions of accreditation imposed under regulation 121. (5) Subregulations (1) to (4) do not apply if the regulator is the accredited assessor. Note— See section 43 of the Act. Subdivision 2—Accreditation process 115—Regulator may accredit assessors The regulator may, under this Division, accredit persons to conduct assessments. 116—Application for accreditation (1) An application for accreditation must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the name and residential address of the applicant; (b) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (c) details of the class of high risk work to which the application relates; (d) evidence that the applicant is qualified to conduct the type of competency assessment in relation to the class of high risk work to which the application relates; (e) details of any current equivalent accreditation under a corresponding WHS law; (f) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant has ever been convicted or found guilty of any offence under the Act or these regulations or under any corresponding WHS law; (g) details of any conviction or finding of guilt declared under paragraph (f); (h) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant has ever entered into an enforceable undertaking under the Act or under any corresponding WHS law; (i) details of any enforceable undertaking declared under paragraph (h); (j) if the applicant has previously been refused an equivalent accreditation under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration giving details of that refusal; (k) if the applicant has previously held an equivalent accreditation under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration— (i) describing any condition imposed on that accreditation; and (ii) stating whether or not that accreditation had been suspended or cancelled and, if so, whether or not the applicant had been disqualified from applying for any accreditation; and (iii) giving details of any suspension, cancellation or disqualification. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 117—Additional information (1) If an application for accreditation does not contain sufficient information to enable the regulator to make a decision whether or not to grant the accreditation, the regulator may ask the applicant to provide additional information. (2) A request for additional information must— (a) specify the date (being not less than 28 days after the request) by which the additional information is to be given; and (b) be confirmed in writing. (3) If an applicant does not provide the additional information by the date specified, the application is taken to have been withdrawn. (4) The regulator may make more than 1 request for additional information under this regulation. 118—Decision on application (1) Subject to subregulation (3), the regulator must grant an accreditation if satisfied about the matters referred to in subregulation (2). (2) The regulator must be satisfied that— (a) the applicant— (i) is qualified to conduct the competency assessment to which the application relates; and (ii) is able to conduct the competency assessment to which the application relates competently; and (iii) is able to ensure compliance with any conditions that will apply to the accreditation; or (b) the applicant holds a current equivalent accreditation under a corresponding WHS law. (3) The regulator must refuse to grant an accreditation if satisfied that— (a) the applicant is disqualified under a corresponding WHS law from holding an equivalent accreditation; or (b) the applicant, in making the application, has— (i) given information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given. (4) If the regulator decides to grant the accreditation, it must notify the applicant within 14 days after making the decision. (5) If the regulator does not make a decision within 120 days after receiving the application or the additional information requested under regulation 117, the regulator is taken to have refused to grant the accreditation applied for. (6) For the purposes of subregulation (2)(a)(i), an applicant is qualified to provide the competency assessment if— (a) the applicant's competencies, skills and knowledge are in accordance with the Standards for NVR Registered Training Organisations 2011 published by the Commonwealth; and (b) the applicant holds a current high risk work licence for the class of high risk work to which the competency assessment relates. Note— A refusal to grant accreditation (including a refusal under subregulation (5)) is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 119—Matters to be taken into account For the purposes of regulation 118(2)(a)(ii) and (iii), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law of which the applicant has been convicted or found guilty; (b) any enforceable undertaking the applicant has entered into under the Act or a corresponding WHS law; (c) in relation to any equivalent accreditation applied for or held by the applicant under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the accreditation; and (ii) any condition imposed on the accreditation, if granted; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any accreditation; (d) the applicant's record in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. 120—Refusal to grant accreditation—process (1) If the regulator proposes to refuse to grant an accreditation, the regulator must give the applicant a written notice— (a) informing the applicant of the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the applicant that the applicant may by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after the notice is given), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1)(b), the regulator must— (a) if the applicant has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal to grant the accreditation—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the applicant has made a submission—decide whether to grant or refuse to grant the accreditation; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the applicant written notice of the decision, including the reasons for the decision. Note— A refusal to grant an accreditation is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 121—Conditions of accreditation (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on an accreditation. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions— (a) relating to the competency assessments and assessment activities that may be carried out; and (b) relating to the circumstances in which competency assessments or assessment activities may be carried out; and (c) requiring the accredited assessor to keep specified information; and (d) requiring the accredited assessor to give specified information to the regulator. Notes— 1 A person must comply with the conditions of accreditation (see section 45 of the Act). 2 A decision to impose a condition on an accreditation is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 122—Duration of accreditation An accreditation takes effect on the day it is granted and, unless cancelled earlier, expires 3 years after that day. 123—Accreditation document (1) If the regulator grants an accreditation, it must issue to the applicant an accreditation document in the form determined by the regulator. (2) An accreditation document must include the following: (a) the name of the accredited assessor; (b) the class of high risk work to which the accreditation relates; (c) any conditions imposed on the accreditation by the regulator; (d) the date on which the accreditation was granted; (e) the expiry date of the accreditation. (3) If an assessor is accredited to conduct a competency assessment in relation to more than 1 class of high risk work, the regulator may issue to the accredited assessor one accreditation document in relation to some or all of those classes of high risk work. (4) If 2 or more of the classes of high risk work referred to in subregulation (3) represent levels of the same type of work, it is sufficient if the accreditation document contains a description of the class of work that represents the highest level. 124—Accreditation document to be available (1) An accredited assessor must keep the accreditation document available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) An accredited assessor must make the accreditation document available for inspection by any person in relation to whom the assessor is conducting, or is to conduct, a competency assessment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) Subregulations (1) and (2) do not apply if the accreditation document is not in the accredited assessor's possession because— (a) it has been returned to the regulator under regulation 126; or (b) the accreditation assessor has applied for, but has not received, a replacement accreditation document under regulation 127. Subdivision 3—Amendment of accreditation document 125—Changes to information (1) An accredited assessor must give the regulator written notice of any change to any material particular in any information given at any time by the assessor to the regulator in relation to the accreditation within 14 days after the assessor becomes aware of the change. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) applies whether the information was given in the application for grant or renewal of the accreditation or in any other circumstance. 126—Accredited assessor to return accreditation document If an accreditation is amended, the accredited assessor must return the accreditation document to the regulator for amendment at the written request of the regulator and within the time specified in the request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 127—Replacement accreditation document (1) An accredited assessor must notify the regulator as soon as practicable if the accreditation document is lost, stolen or destroyed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If an accreditation document is lost, stolen or destroyed an accredited assessor may apply to the regulator for a replacement accreditation document. Note— An accreditation holder is required to keep the accreditation document available for inspection (see regulation 124). (3) An application for a replacement accreditation document must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (4) The application must— (a) include a declaration describing the circumstances in which the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed; and Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (b) be accompanied by the relevant fee. (5) The regulator must issue a replacement accreditation document if satisfied that the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed. (6) If the regulator refuses to issue a replacement accreditation document, it must give the accredited assessor written notice of this decision, including the reasons for the decision, within 14 days after making the decision. Note— A refusal to issue a replacement accreditation document is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 128—Voluntary surrender of accreditation (1) An accredited assessor may voluntarily surrender the accreditation document to the regulator. (2) The accreditation expires on the surrender of the accreditation document. Subdivision 4—Renewal of accreditation 129—Regulator may renew accreditation The regulator may renew an accreditation on the application of the accredited assessor. 130—Application for renewal (1) An application for renewal of accreditation must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) An application must— (a) include the information referred to in regulation 116(2); and Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (b) be accompanied by the relevant fee. (3) The application must be made before the expiry of the accreditation. 131—Accreditation continues in force until application is decided If an accredited assessor applies under regulation 130 for the renewal of accreditation, the accreditation is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this regulation, have expired until the accredited assessor is given notice of the decision on the application. 132—Provisions relating to application For the purposes of this Division— (a) regulation 117 applies as if a reference in that regulation to an application for accreditation were a reference to an application to renew an accreditation; and (b) regulations 118 (except subregulation (5)), 119, 121 and 122 apply as if a reference in those regulations to the grant of an accreditation were a reference to the renewal of an accreditation; and (c) regulation 120 applies as if a reference in that regulation to a refusal to grant an accreditation were a reference to a refusal to renew an accreditation. Note— A refusal to renew an accreditation is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). Subdivision 5—Suspension and cancellation 133—Regulator may suspend or cancel accreditation (1) The regulator may, under this Division— (a) suspend or cancel an accreditation; and (b) if suspending an accreditation, vary the conditions of the accreditation, including by imposing different or additional conditions. (2) If the regulator cancels an accreditation, the regulator may disqualify the accredited assessor from applying for a further accreditation for a specified period. Note— A decision to suspend or cancel an accreditation, to vary the conditions of an accreditation or to disqualify an accredited assessor from applying for a further accreditation is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 134—Suspension or cancellation of accreditation (1) The regulator may suspend or cancel an accreditation if satisfied about 1 or more of the following: (a) the accredited assessor is no longer qualified to conduct the competency assessment specified in the assessor's accreditation document; (b) the accredited assessor is not able to conduct the competency assessment to which the accreditation relates competently; (c) the accredited assessor has failed to comply with a condition imposed on the accreditation under regulation 121; (d) the accredited assessor, in the application for the grant or renewal of accreditation or on request by the regulator for additional information— (i) gave information that was false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given in that application or on that request. (2) In subregulation (1)(a)— qualified has the same meaning in relation to an accredited assessor as it has in regulation 118 in relation to an applicant for accreditation. 135—Matters to be taken into account (1) In making a decision under regulation 133, the regulator must have regard to— (a) any submissions made by the accredited assessor under regulation 136; and (b) any advice received from a corresponding regulator. (2) For the purposes of regulation 134(1)(b) and (c), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law, of which the accredited assessor has been convicted or found guilty; (b) any enforceable undertaking that has been entered into by the accredited assessor under the Act or a corresponding WHS law; (c) in relation to any equivalent accreditation applied for or held by the applicant under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the accreditation; and (ii) any condition imposed on the accreditation, if granted; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any accreditation; (d) any suspension of a high risk work licence held by the accredited assessor under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law; (e) the accredited assessor's record in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. 136—Notice to and submissions by accredited assessor Before suspending or cancelling an accreditation, the regulator must give the accredited assessor a written notice of the proposed suspension or cancellation and any proposed disqualification— (a) outlining all relevant allegations, facts and circumstances known to the regulator; and (b) advising the accreditation holder that the accreditation holder may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice) make submissions in relation to the proposed suspension or cancellation and any proposed disqualification. 137—Notice of decision (1) The regulator must give the accredited assessor written notice of a decision under regulation 134 to suspend or cancel the accreditation within 14 days after making the decision. (2) The notice must— (a) state that the accreditation is to be suspended or cancelled; and (b) if the accreditation is to be suspended, state— (i) when the suspension begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the suspension; and (iii) whether or not the accredited assessor is required to undergo retraining or reassessment or take any other action before the suspension ends; and (iv) whether any variation is to be made to the conditions of accreditation; and (v) whether or not the accredited assessor is disqualified from obtaining a further accreditation during the suspension; and (c) if the accreditation is to be cancelled, state— (i) when the cancellation takes effect; and (ii) the reasons for the cancellation; and (iii) whether or not the accredited assessor is disqualified from applying for a further accreditation; and (d) if the accredited assessor is to be disqualified from obtaining a further accreditation, state— (i) when the disqualification begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the disqualification; and (iii) whether or not the accredited assessor is required to undergo retraining or reassessment or take any other action before the disqualification ends; and (e) state when the accreditation document must be returned to the regulator. 138—Immediate suspension (1) The regulator may suspend an accreditation on a ground referred to in regulation 134 without giving notice under regulation 136 if satisfied that a person may be exposed to an imminent serious risk to his or her health or safety if the accreditation were not suspended. (2) If the regulator decides to suspend an accreditation under this regulation— (a) the regulator must give the accredited assessor written notice of the suspension and the reasons for the suspension; and (b) the suspension takes effect on the giving of the notice. (3) The regulator must then— (a) give the notice under regulation 136 within 14 days after giving the notice under subregulation (2); and (b) make its decision under regulation 134. (4) If the regulator does not give notice under subregulation (3), the suspension ends at the end of the 14 day period. (5) If the regulator gives notice under subregulation (3), the accreditation remains suspended until the decision is made under regulation 134. 139—Accredited assessor to return accreditation document An accredited assessor, on receiving a notice under regulation 137, must return the accreditation document to the regulator in accordance with that notice. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 140—Regulator to return accreditation document after suspension The regulator must return the accreditation document to the accredited assessor within 14 days after the suspension ends. Subdivision 6—Agreements with RTOs 141—Regulator may enter into agreement with RTO The regulator may enter into an agreement with an RTO to share information to assist the regulator in relation to the accreditation of assessors. Part 6—Demolition work Division 1—Notice of demolition work 142—Notice of demolition work (1) Subject to subregulation (4), a person conducting a business or undertaking who proposes to carry out any of the following demolition work must ensure that written notice is given to the regulator in accordance with this regulation at least 5 days before the work commences: (a) demolition of a structure, or a part of a structure that is loadbearing or otherwise related to the physical integrity of the structure, that is at least 6 metres in height; (b) demolition work involving load shifting machinery on a suspended floor; (c) demolition work involving explosives. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (2) The notice must be given in the manner and form required by the regulator. (3) Subregulation (4) applies to an emergency service organisation in relation to demolition work carried out or proposed to be carried out by an emergency service worker at the direction of the emergency service organisation, in responding to an emergency. (4) An emergency service organisation must give notice under subregulation (1) as soon as practicable (whether before or after the work is carried out). (5) In this regulation, a reference to the height of a structure is a reference to the height of the structure measured from the lowest level of the ground immediately adjacent to the base of the structure at the point at which the height is to be measured to its highest point. Division 2—Approval to carry out demolition work 143—Demolition work required to be licensed Note— Regulation 143 appears in some corresponding WHS laws but is not required in this State. 143A—Approval to carry out certain demolition work (1) If it is proposed to— (a) use explosives on a demolition site; or (b) demolish a building or structure using mechanical equipment that needs to be supported by any part of the building or structure, the demolition must not be commenced before a proposed demolition work plan has been submitted to the regulator, and the regulator has given approval to the commencement of the work (and the regulator may attach conditions to any such approval). (2) A person must not contravene or fail to comply with a condition imposed by the regulator under subregulation (1). Maximum penalty: $10 000. (3) An approval given by the Director under regulation 235 of the revoked Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Regulations 2010 that was in force immediately before the revocation of those regulations will be taken to be approval given by the regulator under this regulation and any condition attached to the approval immediately before that revocation will be taken to be a condition of the approval imposed by the regulator under subregulation (1). Part 7—General electrical safety in workplaces and energised electrical work Division 1—Preliminary 144—Meaning of electrical equipment (1) In this Part— electrical equipment means any apparatus, appliance, cable, conductor, fitting, insulator, material, meter or wire that— (a) is used for controlling, generating, supplying, transforming or transmitting electricity at a voltage greater than extra‑low voltage; or (b) is operated by electricity at a voltage greater than extra‑low voltage; or (c) is part of an electrical installation located in an area in which the atmosphere presents a risk to health and safety from fire or explosion; or (d) is, or is part of, an active impressed current cathodic protection system within the meaning of AS 2832.1:2015 (Cathodic protection of metals—Pipes and cables). (2) In this Part— electrical equipment does not include any apparatus, appliance, cable, conductor, fitting, insulator, material, meter or wire that is part of a motor vehicle if— (a) the equipment is part of a unit of the vehicle that provides propulsion for the vehicle; or (b) the electricity source for the equipment is a unit of the vehicle that provides propulsion for the vehicle. (3) In this regulation— motor vehicle means a vehicle that is built to be propelled by a motor that forms part of the vehicle. 145—Meaning of electrical installation (1) In this Part— electrical installation means a group of items of electrical equipment that— (a) are permanently electrically connected together; and (b) can be supplied with electricity from the works of an electricity supply authority or from a generating source. (2) An item of electrical equipment may be part of more than 1 electrical installation. (3) In subregulation (1)(a)— (a) an item of electrical equipment connected to electricity by a plug and socket outlet is not permanently electrically connected; and (b) connection achieved through using works of an electricity supply authority is not a consideration in determining whether or not electrical equipment is electrically connected. 146—Meaning of electrical work (1) In this Part— electrical work means— (a) connecting electricity supply wiring to electrical equipment or disconnecting electricity supply wiring from electrical equipment; or (b) installing, removing, adding, testing, replacing, repairing, altering or maintaining electrical equipment or an electrical installation. (2) In this Part— electrical work does not include the following: (a) work that involves connecting electrical equipment to an electricity supply by means of a flexible cord plug and socket outlet; (b) work on a non‑electrical component of electrical equipment, if the person carrying out the work is not exposed to an electrical risk; Example— Painting electrical equipment covers and repairing hydraulic components of an electrical motor. (c) replacing electrical equipment or a component of electrical equipment if that task can be safely performed by a person who does not have expertise in carrying out electrical work; Example— Replacing a fuse or a light bulb. (d) assembling, making, modifying or repairing electrical equipment as part of a manufacturing process; (e) building or repairing ducts, conduits or troughs, where electrical wiring is or will be installed if— (i) the ducts, conduits or troughs are not intended to be earthed; and (ii) the wiring is not energised; and (iii) the work is supervised by a registered electrical worker; (f) locating or mounting electrical equipment, or fixing electrical equipment in place, if this task is not performed in relation to the connection of electrical equipment to an electricity supply; (g) assisting a registered electrical worker to carry out electrical work if— (i) the assistant is directly supervised by the registered electrical worker; and (ii) the assistance does not involve physical contact with any energised electrical equipment; (h) carrying out electrical work, other than work on energised electrical equipment, in order to meet eligibility requirements in relation to becoming a registered electrical worker; registered electrical worker means a person authorised by registration under Part 3 of the Plumbers, Gas Fitters and Electricians Act 1995 to act as an electrical worker. Division 2—General risk management 147—Risk management A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage risks to health and safety associated with electrical risks at the workplace, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Example— Electrical risks associated with the design, construction, installation, protection, maintenance and testing of electrical equipment and electrical installations at a workplace. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). Division 3—Electrical equipment and electrical installations 148—Electrical equipment and electrical installations to which this Division applies In this Division, a reference to electrical equipment or an electrical installation in relation to a person conducting a business or undertaking is a reference to electrical equipment or an electrical installation that is under the person's management or control. 149—Unsafe electrical equipment (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that any unsafe electrical equipment at the workplace— (a) is disconnected (or isolated) from its electricity supply; and (b) once disconnected (or isolated)— (i) is not reconnected until it is repaired or tested and found to be safe; or (ii) is replaced or permanently removed from use. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) For the purposes of this regulation, electrical equipment or a component of electrical equipment is unsafe if there are reasonable grounds for believing it to be unsafe. 150—Inspection and testing of electrical equipment (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that electrical equipment is regularly inspected and tested by a competent person if the electrical equipment is— (a) supplied with electricity through an electrical socket outlet; and (b) used in an environment in which the normal use of electrical equipment exposes the equipment to operating conditions that are likely to result in damage to the equipment or a reduction in its expected life span, including conditions that involve exposure to moisture, heat, vibration, mechanical damage, corrosive chemicals or dust. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) In the case of electrical equipment that is new and unused at the workplace, the person conducting the business or undertaking— (a) is not required to comply with subregulation (1); and (b) must ensure that the equipment is inspected for obvious damage before being used. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Note— However, electrical equipment that is unsafe must not be used (see regulation 149). (3) The person must ensure that a record of any testing carried out under subregulation (1) is kept until the electrical equipment is— (a) next tested; or (b) permanently removed from the workplace or disposed of. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The record of testing— (a) must specify the following: (i) the name of the person who carried out the testing; (ii) the date of the testing; (iii) the outcome of the testing; (iv) the date on which the next testing must be carried out; and (b) may be in the form of a tag attached to the electrical equipment tested. 151—Untested electrical equipment not to be used A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that electrical equipment is not used if the equipment— (a) is required to be tested under regulation 150; and (b) has not been tested. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Division 4—Electrical work on energised electrical equipment 152—Application of Division 4 This Division does not apply to work carried out by or on behalf of an electricity supply authority on the electrical equipment, including electric line‑associated equipment, controlled or operated by the authority to transform, transmit or supply electricity. 153—Persons conducting a business or undertaking to which this Division applies In this Division (except regulations 156, 159 and 160), a reference to a person conducting a business or undertaking in relation to electrical work is a reference to the person conducting the business or undertaking who is carrying out the electrical work. 154—Electrical work on energised electrical equipment—prohibited Subject to this Division, a person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that electrical work is not carried out on electrical equipment while the equipment is energised. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 155—Duty to determine whether equipment is energised (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that, before electrical work is carried out on electrical equipment, the equipment is tested by a competent person to determine whether or not it is energised. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. Note— Regulation 157 allows electrical testing to be carried out on electrical equipment for the purposes of this regulation. Regulation 161 sets out how the testing is to be carried out. (2) The person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that— (a) each exposed part is treated as energised until it is isolated and determined not to be energised; and (b) each high‑voltage exposed part is earthed after being de‑energised. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 156—De-energised equipment must not be inadvertently re‑energised A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that electrical equipment that has been de‑energised to allow electrical work to be carried out on it is not inadvertently re‑energised while the work is being carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 157—Electrical work on energised electrical equipment—when permitted (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that electrical work on energised electrical equipment is not carried out unless— (a) it is necessary in the interests of health and safety that the electrical work is carried out on the equipment while the equipment is energised; or Example— It may be necessary that life‑saving equipment remain energised and operating while electrical work is carried out on the equipment. (b) it is necessary that the electrical equipment to be worked on is energised in order for the work to be carried out properly; or (c) it is necessary for the purposes of testing required under regulation 155; or (d) there is no reasonable alternative means of carrying out the work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The electrical work that may be carried out under subregulation (1)(a), (b) and (d) may include testing of the energised electrical equipment. 158—Preliminary steps (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure the following, before electrical work on energised electrical equipment commences: (a) a risk assessment is conducted in relation to the proposed electrical work; (b) the area where the electrical work is to be carried out is clear of obstructions so as to allow for easy access and exit; (c) the point at which the electrical equipment can be disconnected or isolated from its electricity supply is— (i) clearly marked or labelled; and (ii) clear of obstructions so as to allow for easy access and exit by the worker who is to carry out the electrical work or any other competent person; and (iii) capable of being operated quickly; (d) the person authorises the electrical work after consulting with the person with management or control of the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(a), the risk assessment must be— (a) conducted by a competent person; and (b) recorded. Note— Regulation 12 permits risk assessments to be conducted, in certain circumstances, in relation to a class of hazards, tasks, things or circumstances. (3) Subregulation (1)(c) does not apply to electrical work on electrical equipment if— (a) the work is to be carried out on the supply side of the main switch on the main switchboard for the equipment; and (b) the point at which the equipment can be disconnected from its electricity supply is not reasonably accessible from the work location. 159—Unauthorised access to equipment being worked on A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that only persons authorised by the person conducting the business or undertaking enter the immediate area in which electrical work on energised electrical equipment is being carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 160—Contact with equipment being worked on A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that, while electrical work is being carried out on energised electrical equipment, all persons are prevented from creating an electrical risk by inadvertently making contact with an exposed energised component of the equipment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 161—How the work is to be carried out (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that electrical work on energised electrical equipment is carried out— (a) by a competent person who has tools, testing equipment and personal protective equipment that— (i) are suitable for the work; and (ii) have been properly tested; and (iii) are maintained in good working order; and (b) in accordance with a safe work method statement prepared for the work; and (c) subject to subregulation (5), with a safety observer present who has the competence and qualifications specified in subregulation (4). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the person who carries out the electrical work uses the tools, testing equipment and personal protective equipment properly. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(b), the safe work method statement must— (a) identify the electrical work; and (b) specify hazards associated with that electrical work and risks associated with those hazards; and (c) describe the measures to be implemented to control the risks; and (d) describe how the risk control measures are to be implemented, monitored and reviewed. (4) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(c)— (a) the safety observer must be competent— (i) to implement control measures in an emergency; and (ii) to rescue and resuscitate the worker who is carrying out the work, if necessary; and (b) the safety observer must have been assessed in the previous 12 months as competent to rescue and resuscitate a person. (5) A safety observer is not required if— (a) the work consists only of testing; and (b) the person conducting the business or undertaking has conducted a risk assessment under regulation 158(1)(a) that shows that there is no serious risk associated with the proposed work. 162—Record keeping (1) This regulation applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking prepares— (a) a risk assessment under regulation 158; or (b) a safe work method statement under regulation 161. (2) Subject to subregulation (3), the person must keep— (a) a copy of the risk assessment until at least 28 days after the work to which it relates is completed; and (b) a copy of the safe work method statement until the work to which it relates is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (3) If a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the work to which the assessment or statement relates, the person must keep the assessment or statement (as applicable) for at least 2 years after the incident occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (4) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the assessment or statement must be kept under this regulation, a copy is readily accessible to any worker engaged by the person to carry out electrical work to which the assessment or statement relates. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (5) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the assessment or statement must be kept under this regulation, a copy is available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Division 5—Electrical equipment and installations and construction work—additional duties 163—Duty of person conducting business or undertaking (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that includes the carrying out of construction work must comply with AS/NZS 3012:2019 (Electrical installations—Construction and demolition sites). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), AS/NZS 3012:2019 (Electrical installations—Construction and demolition sites) applies as if any term that is defined in that Standard and that is also defined in the Act or these regulations has the same meaning as it has in the Act or these regulations. (3) If any requirement in AS/NZS 3012:2019 (Electrical installations—Construction and demolition sites) deals with the same matter as a requirement under this Part, it is sufficient that the person conducting the business or undertaking complies with the requirement in AS/NZS 3012:2019 as modified by subregulation (2). Division 6—Residual current devices 164—Use of socket outlets in hostile operating environment (1) This regulation applies in the following circumstances: (a) electrical equipment is used in an environment in which the normal use of electrical equipment exposes the equipment to operating conditions that are likely to result in damage to the equipment or a reduction in its expected life span, including conditions that involve exposure to moisture, heat, vibration, mechanical damage, corrosive chemicals or dust; (b) electrical equipment is moved between different locations in circumstances where damage to the equipment or to a flexible electricity supply cord is reasonably likely; (c) electrical equipment is frequently moved during its normal use; (d) electrical equipment forms part of, or is used in connection with, an amusement device. (2) In a circumstance set out in subregulation (1), a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that any electrical risk associated with the supply of electricity to the electrical equipment through a socket outlet is minimised by the use of an appropriate residual current device. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) Without limiting subregulation (2), the residual current device must have a tripping current that does not exceed 30 milliamps if electricity is supplied to the equipment through a socket outlet not exceeding 20 amps. (4) Subregulation (2) does not apply if the supply of electricity to the electrical equipment— (a) does not exceed 50 volts alternating current; or (b) is direct current; or (c) is provided through an isolating transformer that provides at least an equivalent level of protection; or (d) is provided from a non‑earthed socket outlet supplied by an isolated winding portable generator that provides at least an equivalent level of protection. 165—Testing of residual current devices (1) A person with management or control of a workplace must take all reasonable steps to ensure that residual current devices used at the workplace are tested regularly by a competent person to ensure that the devices are operating effectively. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) The person must keep a record of all testing of a residual current device (other than any testing conducted daily) until the earlier of the following occurs: (a) the device is next tested; (b) the device is permanently removed from use. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Division 7—Overhead and underground electric lines 166—Duty of person conducting a business or undertaking (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that no person, plant or thing at the workplace comes within an unsafe distance of an overhead or underground electric line. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If it is not reasonably practicable to ensure the safe distance of a person, plant or thing from an overhead or underground electric line, the person conducting the business or undertaking at the workplace must ensure that— (a) a risk assessment is conducted in relation to the proposed work; and (b) control measures implemented are consistent with— (i) the risk assessment; and (ii) if an electricity supply authority is responsible for the electric line, any requirements of the authority. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) An electricity supply authority that has complied with relevant requirements of the Electricity Act 1996 will be taken to have complied with this regulation. Note— The Electricity Act 1996 will also apply to the person conducting the business or undertaking. Part 8—Diving work Division 1—Preliminary 167—Purpose of Chapter 4 Part 8 The purpose of this Part is to impose duties on a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace to ensure— (a) the fitness and competence of persons who carry out general diving work and high risk diving work; and (b) the health and safety of persons who carry out general diving work and high risk diving work; and (c) the health and safety of other persons at workplaces where general diving work or high risk diving work is carried out. Division 2—General diving work—Fitness and competence of worker 168—Person conducting business or undertaking must ensure fitness of workers (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a worker to carry out general diving work or undergo training for general diving work unless the worker holds a current certificate of medical fitness. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must not direct or allow a worker to carry out general diving work or undergo training for diving work unless the work or training complies with any conditions on the current certificate of medical fitness of the worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 169—Certificate of medical fitness A certificate of medical fitness must— (a) be issued by a registered medical practitioner with experience in dive medicine or underwater medicine; and (b) state the following: (i) the name of the person to whom it is issued; (ii) its date of issue and its expiry date; (iii) whether or not the person to whom it is issued is, in accordance with the fitness criteria, medically fit to carry out diving work; (iv) any conditions in relation to the type of diving work the person to whom it is issued is fit to carry out, or the circumstances in which the person is fit to carry out general diving work, including, in the case of a person who is under 18 years of age, any particular conditions applicable to the age of the person. 170—Duty to keep certificate of medical fitness A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must keep the certificate of medical fitness of a worker who carries out general diving work for 1 year after the work is carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 171—Competence of worker—general diving work—qualifications (1) A person must not carry out any type of general diving work unless the person holds a certificate for general diving work, issued by a training organisation, that demonstrates that the person has acquired the relevant competencies for that type of general diving work. (2) This regulation does not apply in relation to incidental diving work or limited scientific diving work. (3) In subregulation (1)— relevant competencies means the competencies specified in AS/NZS 2815 (Training and certification of occupational divers) that are relevant to the type of general diving work to which subregulation (1) applies. Note— See section 44 of the Act. 171A—Competence of worker—general diving work—knowledge and skill (1) A person must not carry out general diving work unless the person has, through training, qualification or experience, acquired sound knowledge and skill in relation to the following: (a) the application of diving physics; (b) the use, inspection and maintenance of diving equipment (including emergency equipment) and air supply of the type to be used in the proposed general diving work; (c) the use of decompression tables or dive computers; (d) dive planning; (e) ways of communicating with another diver and with persons at the surface during general diving work; (f) how to safely carry out general diving work of the type proposed to be carried out; (g) diving physiology, emergency procedures and first aid. Note— See section 44 of the Act. 172—Competence of worker—incidental diving work (1) A person must not carry out incidental diving work unless the person— (a) has the training, qualification or experience referred to in regulation 171A; and (b) has relevant diving experience; and (c) is accompanied and supervised in the water by a person who has the competencies referred to in regulation 171. (2) In this regulation, a person has relevant diving experience if the person has logged at least 15 hours of diving, of which at least 8 hours and 20 minutes were spent diving between 10 metres above and any depth below the maximum depth at which the diving work is to be carried out. 173—Competence of worker—limited scientific diving work (1) A person must not carry out limited scientific diving work unless the person has— (a) the training, qualification or experience referred to in regulation 171A; and (b) if the person is not permanently resident in Australia—relevant diving experience, including relevant diving experience obtained outside Australia. Note— See section 44 of the Act. (2) In this regulation, a person has relevant diving experience if the person has logged at least 60 hours diving of which at least 8 hours and 20 minutes were spent diving between 10 metres above and any depth below the maximum depth at which the limited scientific diving work is to be carried out. 174—Competence of competent person supervising general diving work A person appointed under regulation 177 must not perform any function associated with that appointment unless the person has— (a) the qualification specified in regulation 171; and (b) experience in the type of diving work to be supervised. Note— See section 44 of the Act. 175—Evidence of competence—duty of person conducting business or undertaking (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a worker to carry out general diving work unless the person sees written evidence provided by the worker that the worker has the relevant competence required under this Division. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow a person appointed under regulation 177 to perform any of the functions associated with that appointment unless the person conducting the business or undertaking sees written evidence provided by the person appointed that the person appointed has the competence required under regulation 174. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking must keep the written evidence given to the person— (a) under subregulation (1)—for at least 1 year after the diving work is carried out; (b) under subregulation (2)—for at least 1 year after the last occasion on which the person performs a function associated with the appointment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Division 3—Managing risks—general diving work 176—Management of risks to health and safety (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must manage risks to health and safety associated with general diving work, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a risk assessment is conducted by a competent person for the purposes of subregulation (1). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) The person must ensure that a risk assessment conducted under subregulation (2) is recorded in writing. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Note— For general risk management requirements, see Chapter 3 Part 1. 177—Appointment of competent person to supervise diving work A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must appoint 1 or more competent persons to— (a) supervise general diving work carried out in the business or undertaking; and (b) perform other functions under this Division. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— See regulation 174 for the qualifications of the competent person. 178—Additional control—dive plan (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not direct or allow general diving work to be carried out unless a dive plan for the dive— (a) is prepared by a person appointed under regulation 177; or (b) has been prepared by a person appointed under regulation 177 on an earlier occasion for a similar dive. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A dive plan must state the following: (a) the method of carrying out the diving work to which it relates; (b) the tasks and duties of each person involved in the dive; (c) the diving equipment, breathing gases and procedures to be used in the dive; (d) as applicable, dive times, bottom times and decompression profiles; (e) hazards relating to the dive and measures to be implemented in the control of risks associated with those hazards; (f) emergency procedures. 179—Dive plan must be complied with (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that general diving work is carried out in accordance with the dive plan prepared for it. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a competent person appointed by the person under regulation 177 gives workers instruction in relation to the dive plan before commencing the diving work to which the plan relates. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 180—Additional control—dive safety log to be kept A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace where general diving work is carried out must keep a dive safety log that contains the following information about each dive carried out by a worker: (a) the name of the worker who carries out the dive; (b) the name of any other person with whom the dive is carried out; (c) the name of the person appointed under regulation 177 to supervise the diving work; (d) the date and location of the dive; (e) the time each diver enters and leaves the water; (f) the maximum depth of the dive; (g) any incident, difficulty, discomfort or injury that occurs or is experienced during the dive; (h) if the dive was carried out using a dive computer—the dive time; (i) if the dive was carried out using dive tables—the repetitive dive group, if available, and either the bottom time or the dive time; (j) if the repetitive group and surface interval result in a repetitive factor—the surface interval and the repetitive factor; (k) if the dive is carried out using EANx— (i) the oxygen content of the EANx; and (ii) the maximum operating depth of the EANx; (l) if the dive is carried out using mixed gas— (i) the oxygen content and the nitrogen content (if any) of the gas; and (ii) the maximum operating depth of the mixed gas; and (iii) the minimum operating depth of the bottom mix. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 181—Use of dive safety log (1) This regulation applies to a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace where general diving work is carried out. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that, after each dive carried out in connection with the general diving work is completed, the return of each diver is verified in the dive safety log, as soon as practicable after the return, by— (a) the diver; and (b) a person appointed under regulation 177 to supervise the diving work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) If workers are carrying out general diving work from a vessel, the person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that a person appointed under regulation 177 to supervise the diving work makes and verifies entries in the dive safety log of the number of workers and other persons on board the vessel— (a) before the diving work commences; and (b) before the vessel leaves the location after the diving work is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that the dive safety log is kept for at least 1 year after the last entry is made. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (5) In this regulation, an event is verified in the dive safety log— (a) by signing; or (b) if the log is electronic, by entering the verifier's unique identifier. 182—Record keeping (1) This regulation applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking prepares— (a) a risk assessment under regulation 176; or (b) a dive plan under regulation 178. (2) Subject to subregulation (3), the person must keep— (a) a copy of the risk assessment until at least 28 days after the work to which it relates is completed; and (b) a copy of the dive plan until the work to which it relates is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) If a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the work to which the assessment or dive plan relates, the person must keep the assessment or dive plan (as applicable) for at least 2 years after the incident occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the assessment or dive plan must be kept under this regulation, a copy is readily accessible to any worker engaged by the person to carry out the work to which the assessment or dive plan relates. (5) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the assessment or dive plan must be kept under this regulation, a copy is available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Division 4—High risk diving work 183—Duties of person conducting business or undertaking A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace where high risk diving work is carried out must ensure that the following are in accordance with AS/NZS 2299.1:2015 (Occupational diving operations—Standard operational practice): (a) the fitness of persons carrying out the work; (b) the competence of persons carrying out the work; Note— See section 44 of the Act. (c) the carrying out of the work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 184—Duty of worker—competence A person must not carry out high risk diving work unless the person has the qualifications, knowledge, skills and experience required by AS/NZS 2299.1:2015 (Occupational diving operations—Standard operational practice) for work of the kind to be carried out by the person. Note— See section 44 of the Act. Chapter 5—Plant and structures Part 1—General duties for plant and structures Note— If a jurisdiction enacts Schedule 1 of the Act, this Part will extend to plant outside the workplace as provided for in that Schedule. Division 1—Preliminary 185—Application of Chapter 5 Part 1 to plant (1) Subject to this regulation, this Part applies to all plant. (2) Subject to subregulation (3), this Part does not apply to plant that— (a) relies exclusively on manual power for its operation; and (b) is designed to be primarily supported by hand. (3) This Part applies to explosive power tools that are designed to be supported by hand. 186—Application of Chapter 5 Part 1 to structures This Part applies to structures as provided in this Part. Division 2—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that design plant 187—Provision of information to manufacturer A designer of plant must ensure, when the design of the plant is made available to the manufacturer of the plant, that the manufacturer is provided with— (a) information to enable the plant to be manufactured in accordance with the design specifications; and (b) if applicable, information about— (i) the installation, commissioning, decommissioning, use, handling, storage and, if the plant is capable of being dismantled, dismantling of the plant; and (ii) the hazards and risks associated with the use of the plant that the designer has identified; and (iii) testing or inspections to be carried out on the plant; and (iv) the systems of work and competency of operators that are necessary for the safe use of the plant; and (v) the emergency procedures (if any) that are required to be implemented if there is a malfunction of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Note— A designer also has duties under section 22 of the Act. 188—Hazard identified in design during manufacture If a manufacturer of plant informs the designer of the plant that there is a hazard in the design of plant for which the designer has not provided a control measure, the designer must— (a) revise the information originally supplied to the manufacturer to ensure that— (i) the risk is eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable; or (ii) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk, the risk is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable; or (b) notify the manufacturer, in writing, that the designer is of the opinion that it is not necessary to revise the information originally supplied to the manufacturer to ensure compliance with this Part. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Note— A designer also has duties under section 22 of the Act. 189—Guarding (1) This regulation applies if a designer of plant uses guarding as a control measure. (2) The designer must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the guarding designed for that purpose will prevent access to the danger point or danger area of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The designer must ensure that— (a) if access to the area of the plant requiring guarding is not necessary during operation, maintenance or cleaning of the plant—the guarding is a permanently fixed physical barrier; or (b) if access to the area of the plant requiring guarding is necessary during operation, maintenance or cleaning of the plant—the guarding is an interlocked physical barrier that allows access to the area being guarded at times when that area does not present a risk and prevents access to that area at any other time; or (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to use guarding referred to in paragraph (a) or (b)—the guarding used is a physical barrier that can only be altered or removed by the use of tools; or (d) if it is not reasonably practicable to use guarding referred to in paragraph (a), (b) or (c)—the design includes a presence‑sensing safeguarding system that eliminates any risk arising from the area of the plant requiring guarding while a person or any part of a person is in the area being guarded. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The designer must ensure that the guarding is designed— (a) to be of solid construction and securely mounted so as to resist impact or shock; and (b) to make bypassing or disabling of the guarding, whether deliberately or by accident, as difficult as is reasonably practicable; and (c) so as not to cause a risk in itself. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) If the plant to be guarded contains moving parts and those parts may break or cause workpieces to be ejected from the plant, the designer must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the guarding will control any risk from those broken or ejected parts and workpieces. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) Despite anything to the contrary in this regulation, the designer must ensure— (a) that the guarding is of a kind that can be removed to allow maintenance and cleaning of the plant at any time that the plant is not in normal operation; and (b) if the guarding is removed, that, so far as is reasonably practicable, the plant cannot be restarted unless the guarding is replaced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 190—Operational controls (1) A designer of plant must ensure that the design provides for any operator's controls for the plant to be— (a) identified on the plant so as to indicate their nature and function and direction of operation; and (b) located so as to be readily and conveniently operated by each person using the plant; and (c) located or guarded to prevent unintentional activation; and (d) able to be locked into the "off" position to enable the disconnection of all motive power. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the need for plant to be operated during maintenance or cleaning cannot be eliminated, the designer of the plant must ensure that the design provides for operator's controls that: (a) permit operation of the plant while a person is undertaking the maintenance or cleaning of the plant; and (b) while the plant is being maintained or cleaned, cannot be operated by any person other than the person who is carrying out the maintenance or cleaning of the plant; and (c) will allow operation of the plant in such a way that any risk associated with the activities in relation to any person who is carrying out the maintenance or cleaning— (i) is eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable; or (ii) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk, is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 191—Emergency stop controls (1) If plant is designed to be operated or attended by more than 1 person and more than 1 emergency stop control is fitted, the designer of the plant must ensure that the design provides for the multiple emergency stop controls to be of the "stop and lock‑off" type so that the plant cannot be restarted after an emergency stop control has been used unless that emergency stop control is reset. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the design of the plant includes an emergency stop control for the plant, the designer of the plant must ensure that the design provides— (a) for the stop control to be prominent, clearly and durably marked and immediately accessible to each operator of the plant; and (b) for any handle, bar or push button associated with the stop control to be coloured red; and (c) that the stop control cannot be adversely affected by electrical or electronic circuit malfunction. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 192—Warning devices (1) This regulation applies if the design of plant includes an emergency warning device or it is necessary to include an emergency warning device to minimise risk. (2) The designer of the plant must ensure that the design provides for the device to be positioned on the plant to ensure the device will work to best effect. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 3—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that manufacture plant 193—Control of risk (1) A manufacturer of plant must ensure the following: (a) that the plant is manufactured and inspected having regard to the information provided to the manufacturer by the designer of the plant under the Act and these regulations; (b) if the information provided to the manufacturer by the designer of the plant under the Act and these regulations requires the plant to be tested—that the plant is tested in accordance with that information; (c) if, during the manufacturing process, any hazard is identified in the design of the plant for which the designer has not provided a control measure— (i) that the hazard is not incorporated into the manufacture of the plant; and (ii) that the designer of the plant is given written notice of the hazard as soon as practicable; and (iii) that all reasonable steps are taken to consult with the designer of the plant in relation to the alteration of the design to rectify the hazard. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A manufacturer of plant must ensure that, if it is not possible to inform the designer about the hazard in accordance with subregulation (1)— (a) the risk is eliminated, so far as is reasonably practicable; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk, the risk is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Note— WHS Act—section 23 (see regulation 9). (3) A manufacturer to whom subregulation (1)(c) applies must not manufacture the plant until— (a) the designer gives the manufacturer the revised information or written instruction under regulation 188; or (b) the manufacturer eliminates or minimises the risk under subregulation (2). Note— WHS Act—section 23 (see regulation 9). (4) If the designer notifies a manufacturer of plant under regulation 188, the manufacturer may proceed in accordance with the designer's original information. 194—Guarding (1) A manufacturer of plant must ensure that guarding used as a control measure is of solid construction and securely mounted so as to resist impact or shock. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A manufacturer of plant must ensure— (a) that any guarding used as a control measure in relation to plant is of a kind that can be removed to allow maintenance and cleaning of the plant at any time that the plant is not in normal operation; and (b) if the guarding is removed—that, so far as is reasonably practicable, the plant cannot be restarted unless the guarding is replaced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 195—Information must be obtained and provided A manufacturer of plant must— (a) take all reasonable steps to obtain the information required to be provided to the manufacturer by the designer of the plant under section 22(4)(a) and (c) of the Act and regulations 187 and 188; and (b) ensure that a person to whom the manufacturer supplies the plant is, at the time of supply, provided with the information provided to the manufacturer by the designer under section 22(4)(a) and (c) of the Act and regulation 187; and (c) if the manufacturer acts in accordance with regulation 193(1)(c), ensure that a person to whom the manufacturer supplies the plant is provided with the information, applicable to the plant, that is required to be provided by the designer under sections 22(4)(a) and (c) of the Act and regulation 188. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Division 4—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that import plant 196—Information to be obtained and provided by importer An importer of plant must— (a) take all reasonable steps to obtain— (i) the information that would be required to be provided by a manufacturer under section 23(4)(a) and (c) of the Act; and (ii) the information that would be required to be provided by the designer of the plant to the manufacturer under regulations 187 and 188; and (b) give that information to any person to whom the importer supplies the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 197—Control of risk An importer of plant must— (a) ensure that the plant is inspected having regard to the information provided by the manufacturer; and (b) if the information provided by the manufacturer requires the plant to be tested—ensure that the plant is tested in accordance with that information; and (c) if any hazards are identified— (i) ensure that the plant is not supplied until the risks have been eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable; and (ii) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risks, inform the person to whom the plant is supplied about the risks; and (d) take all reasonable steps to ensure that the designer and manufacturer of the plant are consulted in relation to any alteration made to the plant to control the risk. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 5—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that supply plant 198—Information to be obtained and provided by supplier A supplier of plant must— (a) take all reasonable steps to obtain the information required to be provided by the manufacturer under section 23(4)(a) and (c) of the Act and these regulations; and (b) ensure that, when the plant is supplied, the person to whom the plant is supplied is given the information obtained by the supplier under paragraph (a). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 199—Supply of second‑hand plant—duties of supplier (1) A supplier of second‑hand plant must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that any faults in the plant are identified. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A supplier of second‑hand plant must ensure that the person to whom the plant is supplied is, before the plant is supplied, given written notice— (a) of the condition of the plant; and (b) of any faults identified under subregulation (1); and (c) if appropriate, that the plant should not be used until the faults are rectified. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) This regulation does not apply to plant to be used for scrap or spare parts. 200—Second‑hand plant to be used for scrap or spare parts A supplier of plant to be used for scrap or spare parts must, before the plant is supplied, inform the person to whom the plant is supplied, either in writing or by marking the plant, that the plant is being supplied for scrap or spare parts and that the plant in its current form is not to be used as plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Division 6—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that install, construct or commission plant or structures 201—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that install, construct or commission plant (1) This regulation applies to a person who conducts a business or undertaking that installs, constructs or commissions plant that is to be used, or could reasonably be expected to be used, as, or at, a workplace. (2) The person must ensure that the plant is installed, constructed or commissioned having regard to— (a) the information provided by the designer, manufacturer, importer or supplier of the plant under the Act and these regulations; or (b) the instructions provided by a competent person to the extent that those instructions relate to health and safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 202—Duties of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that install, construct or commission structures (1) This regulation applies to a person who conducts a business or undertaking that installs, constructs or commissions a structure that is to be used, or could reasonably be expected to be used, as or at, a workplace. (2) The person must ensure that the structure is installed, constructed or commissioned having regard to— (a) the information provided by the designer, manufacturer, importer or supplier of the structure under the Act and these regulations; or (b) the instructions provided by a competent person to the extent that those instructions relate to health and safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 7—General duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking involving the management or control of plant Note— A person with management or control of plant at a workplace is the person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace to the extent that the business or undertaking involves the management or control of plant in whole or in part at the workplace. See the definition of person with management or control of plant at a workplace in regulation 5 and section 21 of the Act. Subdivision 1—Management of risks 203—Management of risks to health and safety A person with management or control of plant at a workplace must manage risks to health and safety associated with plant, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 21 (see regulation 9). Subdivision 2—Additional control measures for general plant 204—Control of risks arising from installation or commissioning (1) A person with management or control of plant at a workplace must not commission the plant unless the person has established that the plant is, so far as is reasonably practicable, without risks to the health and safety of any person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person with management or control of plant at a workplace must not decommission or dismantle the plant unless the decommissioning or dismantling can be carried out, so far as is reasonably practicable, without risks to the health and safety of any person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) A person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure that a person who installs, assembles, constructs, commissions or decommissions or dismantles the plant is a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) A person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure that a person who installs, assembles, constructs, commissions or decommissions or dismantles the plant is provided with the available information for eliminating or minimising risks to health or safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) A person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure that the processes for the installation, construction, commissioning, decommissioning and dismantling of plant include inspections that ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that risks associated with these activities are monitored. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 205—Preventing unauthorised alterations to or interference with plant The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must, so far as is reasonably practicable, prevent alterations to or interference with the plant that are not authorised by the person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 206—Proper use of plant and controls (1) The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must take all reasonable steps to ensure that plant is used only for the purpose for which it was designed, unless the person has determined that the proposed use does not increase the risk to health or safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In determining whether or not a proposed use of plant increases the risk to health or safety, the person with management or control of the plant must ensure that the risk associated with the proposed use is assessed by a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must take all reasonable steps to ensure that all health and safety features and warning devices (including guarding, operational controls, emergency stops and warning devices) are used in accordance with the instructions and information provided by that person under regulation 39. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 207—Plant not in use The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that plant that is not in use is left in a state that does not create a risk to the health or safety of any person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 208—Guarding (1) This regulation applies if guarding is used as a control measure in relation to plant at a workplace. (2) The person with management or control of the plant must ensure that— (a) if access to the area of the plant requiring guarding is not necessary during operation, maintenance or cleaning of the plant, the guarding is a permanently fixed physical barrier; or (b) if access to the area of the plant requiring guarding is necessary during operation, maintenance or cleaning of the plant, the guarding is an interlocked physical barrier that allows access to the area being guarded at times when that area does not present a risk and prevents access to that area at any other time; or (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to use guarding referred to in paragraph (a) or (b), the guarding used is a physical barrier that can only be altered or removed by the use of tools; or (d) if it is not reasonably practicable to use guarding referred to in paragraph (a), (b) or paragraph (c), the guarding includes a presence‑sensing safeguarding system that eliminates any risk arising from the area of the plant requiring guarding while a person or any part of a person is in the area being guarded. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person with management or control of the plant must ensure that the guarding— (a) is of solid construction and securely mounted so as to resist impact or shock; and (b) makes bypassing or disabling of the guarding, whether deliberately or by accident, as difficult as is reasonably practicable; and (c) does not create a risk in itself; and (d) is properly maintained. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) If the plant to be guarded contains moving parts that may break or cause workpieces to be ejected from the plant, the person with management or control of the plant must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the guarding will control any risk from those broken or ejected parts and workpieces. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) Despite anything to the contrary in this regulation, the person with management or control of the plant must ensure— (a) that the guarding is of a kind that can be removed to allow maintenance and cleaning of the plant at any time that the plant is not in normal operation; and (b) if guarding is removed, that so far as is reasonably practicable, the plant cannot be restarted unless the guarding is replaced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 209—Guarding and insulation from heat and cold The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that any pipe or other part of the plant associated with heat or cold is guarded or insulated so that the plant is without risks to the health and safety of any person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 210—Operational controls (1) The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure that any operator's controls are— (a) identified on the plant so as to indicate their nature and function and direction of operation; and (b) located so as to be readily and conveniently operated by each person using the plant; and (c) located or guarded to prevent unintentional activation; and (d) able to be locked into the "off" position to enable the disconnection of all motive power. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the need for plant to be operated during maintenance or cleaning cannot be eliminated, the person with management or control of the plant at a workplace must ensure that the operator's controls— (a) permit operation of the plant while a person is undertaking the maintenance or cleaning of the plant; and (b) while the plant is being maintained or cleaned, either— (i) cannot be operated by any person other than the person who is carrying out the maintenance or cleaning of the plant; or (ii) if subparagraph (i) cannot be complied with because the plant must be operated by a person other than the person who is carrying out the maintenance or cleaning of the plant, cannot be operated except by a person authorised by the person with management or control of the plant for that purpose; and (c) will allow operation of the plant in such a way that any risk associated with the activities in relation to any person who is carrying out the maintenance or cleaning— (i) is eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable; or (ii) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk, is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 211—Emergency stops (1) If plant at a workplace is designed to be operated or attended by more than 1 person and more than 1 emergency stop control is fitted, the person with management or control of plant at the workplace must ensure that the multiple emergency stop controls are of the "stop and lock‑off" type so that the plant cannot be restarted after an emergency stop control has been used unless that emergency stop control is reset. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the design of plant at a workplace includes an emergency stop control, the person with management or control of the plant at the workplace must ensure that— (a) the stop control is prominent, clearly and durably marked and immediately accessible to each operator of the plant; and (b) any handle, bar or push button associated with the stop control is coloured red; and (c) the stop control cannot be adversely affected by electrical or electronic circuit malfunction. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 212—Warning devices (1) This regulation applies if the design of plant includes an emergency warning device or it is necessary to include an emergency warning device to minimise risk. (2) The person with management or control of the plant must ensure that the device is positioned on the plant to ensure that the device will work to best effect. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 213—Maintenance and inspection of plant (1) The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure that the maintenance, inspection and, if necessary, testing of the plant is carried out by a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The maintenance, inspection and testing must be carried out— (a) in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations, if any; or (b) if there are no manufacturer's recommendations, in accordance with the recommendations of a competent person; or (c) in relation to inspection, if it is not reasonably practicable to comply with paragraph (a) or (b), annually. Subdivision 3—Additional control measures for certain plant Note— The person with management or control of plant at a workplace is the person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace to the extent that the business or undertaking involves the management or control of plant in whole or in part at the workplace. See the definition of person with management or control of plant at a workplace in regulation 5 and section 21 of the Act. 214—Powered mobile plant—general control of risk The person with management or control of powered mobile plant at a workplace must in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, manage risks to heath and safety associated with the following: (a) the plant overturning; (b) things falling on the operator of the plant; (c) the operator being ejected from the plant; (d) the plant colliding with any person or thing; (e) mechanical failure of pressurised elements of plant that may release fluids that pose a risk to health and safety. Note— WHS Act—section 21 (see regulation 9). 215—Powered mobile plant—specific control measures (1) This regulation applies to a person with management or control of powered mobile plant at a workplace. (2) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a suitable combination of operator protective devices for the plant is provided, maintained and used. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that no person other than the operator rides on the plant unless the person is provided with a level of protection that is equivalent to that provided to the operator. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The person must ensure that the plant does not collide with pedestrians or other powered mobile plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) Without limiting subregulation (4), if there is a possibility of the plant colliding with pedestrians or other powered mobile plant, the person must ensure that the plant has a warning device that will warn persons who may be at risk from the movement of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 216—Roll‑over protection on tractors (1) The person with management or control of a tractor at a workplace must ensure that the tractor is not used unless it is securely fitted with a roll‑over protective structure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If a tractor is used in a place that is too low for the tractor to work while it is fitted with a roll‑over protective structure, the structure may be lowered or removed for the period during which the tractor is used in such a situation (but only if other measures to minimise the risk of roll‑over are in place). (3) This regulation does not apply if the tractor is— (a) installed in a fixed position, and in a manner which would no longer permit it to be used as powered mobile plant; or (b) a tractor with a mass of less than 560 kilograms or a mass of 15 000 kilograms or more; or (c) being used for a historical purpose or activity. (4) In this regulation— historical purpose or activity, in relation to the use of a tractor, includes an activity ancillary to a historical activity; Examples— 1 Historical activity: a historical display, parade, demonstration or re‑enactment. 2 Activity ancillary to a historical activity: restoring, maintaining, modifying or housing a tractor used, or to be used, for a historical activity. roll‑over protective structure means a structure designed to protect a tractor operator from injury if the tractor rolls over in any direction. Note— Regulations 214 and 215 also apply to a tractor. 218—Industrial lift trucks (1) The person with management or control of an industrial lift truck at a workplace must ensure that the truck is— (a) equipped with lifting attachments that are suitable for the load to be lifted or moved by the truck; and (b) operated in a manner that ensures that the risks to the operator of the truck and other persons at or near the workplace that arise from systems of work and the environment in which the truck is used— (i) are eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable; or (ii) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risks, are minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person with management or control of an industrial lift truck at a workplace must ensure that the truck is not used to carry a passenger unless— (a) the truck is designed to carry a seated passenger; and (b) the passenger seat is— (i) fitted with suitable seat restraints; and (ii) located within the zone of protection that is provided by the operator protective device required to be fitted to the industrial lift truck. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person with management or control of an industrial lift truck at a workplace must take all reasonable steps to ensure that a passenger in an industrial lift truck is seated in a seat that complies with subregulation (2)(b). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— Regulations 214 and 215 also apply to an industrial lift truck. 219—Plant that lifts or suspends loads (1) This regulation applies in relation to plant that is used to lift or suspend persons or things. (2) The person with management or control of plant at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the plant used is specifically designed to lift or suspend the load. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) If it is not reasonably practicable to use plant that is specifically designed to lift or suspend the load, the person must ensure that— (a) the plant does not cause a greater risk to health and safety than if specifically designed plant were used; and (b) if the plant is lifting or suspending persons, the use of the plant complies with regulation 220. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The person must ensure that the lifting and suspending is carried out— (a) with lifting attachments that are suitable for the load being lifted or suspended; and (b) within the safe working limits of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that no loads are suspended or travel over a person unless the plant is specifically designed for that purpose. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that loads are lifted or suspended in a way that ensures that the load remains under control during the activity. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (7) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that no load is lifted simultaneously by more than 1 item of plant unless the method of lifting ensures that the load placed on each item of plant does not exceed the design capacity of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 220—Exception—Plant not specifically designed to lift or suspend a person (1) For the purposes of regulation 219(3)(b), the person with management or control of the plant at a workplace must ensure that— (a) the persons are lifted or suspended in a work box that is securely attached to the plant; and (b) the persons in the work box remain substantially within the work box while they are being lifted or suspended; and (c) if there is a risk of a person falling from a height, a safety harness is provided and worn by the person in order to prevent, so far as is reasonably practicable, injury to the person as a result of the fall; and (d) means are provided by which the persons being lifted or suspended can safely exit from the plant in the event of a failure in its normal operation. (2) This regulation does not apply to plant used in connection with— (a) the performance of stunt work; or (b) the performance of acrobatics; or (c) theatrical performances. Note— Chapter 4 Part 4 (except regulation 79) applies to the matters in subregulation (2). 221—Plant used in connection with tree lopping (1) Regulation 220(1)(a) and (b) do not apply in connection with tree lopping if— (a) a risk assessment shows that lifting or suspending a person in a harness with a crane to place the person in a tree to carry out tree lopping does not create a greater risk to health or safety than using plant specifically designed to lift a person or climbing a tree; and (b) the tree lopping is carried out by a person who is a competent person in the use of the harness referred to in paragraph (a); and (c) a crane is used to put the competent person in the tree to lop it; and (d) the crane has safety mechanisms that would prevent the competent person from inadvertently falling; and (e) while attached to the crane, the competent person is in visual, audio or radio communication with the crane operator. (2) In this regulation— harness means a work positioning harness that is designed and certified, in accordance with AS/NZS 1891.1:2020 (Personal equipment for work at height—Manufacturing requirements for full body combination and lower body harnesses), for the purpose of lifting and suspending a person. 222—Industrial robots (1) This regulation applies to a person with management or control of an industrial robot or other remotely or automatically energised plant at a workplace. (2) The person must not allow or direct a worker to work in the immediate vicinity of the plant if it could start without warning and cause a hazard, unless suitable control measures are in place to control the risks to health and safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) If the remote or automatic energising of the plant could lead to risks to health and safety, the person must ensure that access to the area in the immediate vicinity of the plant is controlled at all times— (a) by isolating the area; or (b) by— (i) providing interlocked guards; or (ii) if a risk remains, providing presence‑sensing devices; or (iii) if a risk then remains, providing permit to work systems. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 223—Lasers (1) This regulation applies to the person with management or control at a workplace of laser equipment that may create a risk to health and safety. (2) The person must ensure that laser equipment intended for use on plant is designed, constructed and installed so as to prevent accidental irradiation of any person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure that laser equipment on plant is protected so that any operator of the plant or other person is not exposed to direct radiation, radiation produced by reflection or diffusion or secondary radiation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The person must ensure that the visual equipment used for the observation or adjustment of laser equipment on plant does not create a risk to health or safety from laser rays. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) The person must ensure that the workers operating the laser equipment are trained in the proper operation of the equipment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) The person must ensure that Class 3B and Class 4 lasers (within the meaning of AS 2397:2015—Safe use of lasers in the building and construction industry) are not used in construction work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 224—Pressure equipment (1) The person with management or control of pressure equipment at a workplace must ensure that— (a) the equipment is inspected on a regular basis by a competent person; and (b) any gas cylinder that is inspected is marked with a current inspection mark showing the date of the most recent inspection. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) The person with management or control of gas cylinders at a workplace that is a gas cylinder filling station must ensure that— (a) a gas cylinder is not filled with gas unless it bears a current inspection mark; and (b) a gas cylinder is only filled with gas for which that cylinder is designed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 225—Scaffolds (1) This regulation applies in relation to— (a) a suspended scaffold; and (b) a cantilevered scaffold; and (c) a spur scaffold; and (d) a hung scaffold; and (e) any other scaffold from which a person or thing could fall more than 4 metres. (2) The person with management or control of a scaffold at a workplace must ensure that the scaffold is not used unless the person receives written confirmation from a competent person who has inspected the scaffold that construction of the scaffold has been completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person with management or control of a scaffold at a workplace must ensure that the scaffold and its supporting structure are inspected by a competent person— (a) before use of the scaffold is resumed after an incident occurs that may reasonably be expected to affect the stability of the scaffold; and (b) before use of the scaffold is resumed after repairs; and (c) at least every 30 days. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) If an inspection indicates that a scaffold at a workplace or its supporting structure creates a risk to health or safety, the person with management or control of the scaffold must ensure that— (a) any necessary repairs, alterations and additions are made or carried out; and (b) the scaffold and its supporting structure are inspected again by a competent person before use of the scaffold is resumed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) The person with management or control of a scaffold at a workplace must ensure that unauthorised access to the scaffold is prevented while the scaffold is incomplete or unattended. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Example— Danger tags and other warning signs. 226—Plant with presence‑sensing safeguarding system—records (1) The person with management or control of plant with a presence sensing safeguarding system at a workplace must keep a record of safety integrity tests, inspections, maintenance, commissioning, decommissioning, dismantling and alterations of the plant for the period set out in subregulation (2). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) The record must be kept for— (a) 5 years unless paragraph (b) applies; or (b) the life of the plant or until the person relinquishes control of the plant if the plant is registered plant or has been altered. (3) The person must keep the record available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person must make the record available to any person to whom the person relinquishes control of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Part 2—Additional duties relating to registered plant and plant designs Notes— 1 The person with management or control of plant at a workplace is the person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace to the extent that the business or undertaking involves the management or control of plant in whole or in part at the workplace. See the definition of person with management or control of plant at a workplace in regulation 5 and section 21 of the Act. 2 This Part applies in addition to Chapter 5 Part 1. 3 In this Part, plant includes a structure (see definition of plant in regulation 5). Division 1—Application of Chapter 5 Part 2 227—Application of Chapter 5 Part 2 This Part applies to— (a) plant that is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3; or (b) plant the design of which is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3. Division 2—Duty of person conducting a business or undertaking who designs plant to record plant design 228—Records and information If the design of plant is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3, the designer of that plant must make a record that contains— (a) the method used to determine the control measures for the plant and the control measures that result from that determination; and (b) a copy of the information provided to a manufacturer under section 22 of the Act in relation to that plant; and (c) a copy of the information provided to a manufacturer under regulation 187 in relation to that plant; and (d) if applicable, a copy of the information provided to a manufacturer under regulation 188 in relation to that plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 229—Record of standards or engineering principles used (1) If the design of plant is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3, the designer of the plant must record any published technical standard, including any part of a published technical standard, that was used to design the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If the designer of the plant has not used published technical standards to design the plant, the designer must record any engineering principles used to design the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 230—Records to be available for inspection (1) A designer of plant must ensure that the records made under regulations 228 and 229 are kept available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) A designer of plant must ensure that the records made available under regulations 228 and 229 are made available for inspection by the design verifier of the plant design. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) A designer of plant must keep the records made under regulations 228 and 229 for the design life of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Division 3—Duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking 231—Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that manufacture plant A manufacturer must not supply plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 unless the design of that plant is registered under Chapter 5 Part 3. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 232—Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that import plant An importer must not supply plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 unless the design of that plant is registered under Chapter 5 Part 3. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 233—Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that supply plant A supplier must not supply plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 unless the design of that plant is registered under Chapter 5 Part 3. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 234—Duty of persons conducting businesses or undertakings that commission plant (1) This regulation applies to a person who conducts a business or undertaking that commissions plant. (2) The person must not commission an item of plant that is specified in Part 2 of Schedule 5 for use in a workplace unless that item of plant is registered under Chapter 5 Part 3. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) Nothing in subregulation (2) prevents a person from performing any necessary adjustments, tests or inspections as part of the commissioning process before the plant is commissioned at a workplace. Division 4—Duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking involving the management or control of plant Subdivision 1—Control measures for registered plant 235—Major inspection of registered mobile cranes and tower cranes (1) This regulation applies to the person with management or control of a registered mobile crane or tower crane at a workplace. (2) The person must ensure that a major inspection of the crane is carried out by, or under the supervision of, a competent person— (a) at the end of the design life recommended by the manufacturer for the crane; or (b) if there are no manufacturer's recommendations—in accordance with the recommendations of a competent person; or (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to comply with paragraph (a) or (b)—every 10 years from the date that the crane was first commissioned or first registered, whichever occurred first. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) A major inspection carried out under and in accordance with an equivalent provision of a corresponding WHS law is taken to be a major inspection for the purposes of this regulation. (4) In this regulation, a competent person is a person who— (a) complies with both of the following: (i) has acquired through training, qualification or experience the knowledge and skills to carry out a major inspection of the plant; and (ii) is— (A) registered, or eligible to be registered, on the National Professional Engineers Register administered by the Institution of Engineers, Australia; or (B) a member, or eligible to be a member, of the Institution of Engineers Australia with the status of Chartered Professional Engineer; or (b) is determined by the regulator to be a competent person. (5) The regulator may, on the application of a person, make a determination in relation to the person for the purposes of subregulation (4)(b) if the regulator considers that exceptional circumstances exist. (6) In this regulation— major inspection means— (a) an examination of all critical components of the crane, if necessary by stripping down the crane and removing paint, grease and corrosion to allow a thorough examination of each critical component; and (b) a check of the effective and safe operation of the crane. 236—Lifts (1) The person with management or control of a lift at a workplace (including a person with management or control of maintenance of a lift) must ensure that— (a) if there is a risk of a person falling down a lift well— (i) secure barriers are provided to prevent access to openings into the lift well by someone other than a person who is performing work in the lift well; and (ii) secure working platforms or equivalent arrangements are provided for a person who is working in the lift well to prevent a fall from height; and (b) if there is a risk to a person working in a lift well from objects falling onto that person—a secure barrier is provided to prevent, so far as is reasonably practicable, falling objects from striking the person or otherwise causing a risk. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The person must ensure that there is a safe means of entry to and exit from the base of the lift well. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) The person must ensure that there is fixed, in a prominent place in the lift, a sign that states the safe working load specified in the design of the lift. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 237—Records of plant (1) This regulation applies in relation to plant that is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3. (2) The person with management or control of the plant at a workplace must keep a record of all tests, inspections, maintenance, commissioning, decommissioning, dismantling and alterations of the plant for the period set out in subregulation (3). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) The record must be kept for the period that the plant is used or until the person relinquishes control of the plant. (4) The person must keep the record available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (5) The person must make the record available to any person to whom the person relinquishes control of the plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Subdivision 2—Control measures for amusement devices and passenger ropeways 238—Operation of amusement devices and passenger ropeways (1) The person with management or control of an amusement device or passenger ropeway at a workplace must ensure that the device or ropeway is operated only by a person who has been provided with instruction and training in its proper operation. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person with management or control of an amusement device or passenger ropeway at a workplace must ensure that— (a) the amusement device or passenger ropeway is checked before it is operated on each day on which it is to be operated; and (b) the amusement device or passenger ropeway is operated without passengers before it is operated with passengers on each day on which it is to be operated; and (c) the daily checks and operation of the amusement device or passenger ropeway without passengers are properly and accurately recorded in a log book for the device or ropeway. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) in the case of an individual—$720; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$3 600. (3) The reference in subregulation (1) to instruction and training in the proper operation of a device or ropeway includes a reference to instruction and training in carrying out the checks and operation required under subregulation (2)(a) and (b). 239—Storage of amusement devices and passenger ropeways (1) The person with management or control of an amusement device or passenger ropeway at a workplace must ensure that the device or ropeway is stored so as to be without risk to health and safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The person with management or control of an amusement device or passenger ropeway at a workplace must ensure that a person who stores the device or ropeway is a competent person or is under the supervision of a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 240—Maintenance, inspection and testing of amusement devices and passenger ropeways (1) The person with management or control of an amusement device or passenger ropeway at a workplace must ensure that the maintenance, inspection and, if necessary, testing of the device or ropeway is carried out— (a) by a competent person; and (b) in accordance with— (i) the recommendations of the designer or manufacturer or designer and manufacturer; or (ii) if a maintenance manual for the device or ropeway has been prepared by a competent person, the requirements of the maintenance manual. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person is not a competent person to carry out a detailed inspection of an amusement device or passenger ropeway that includes an electrical installation unless the person is qualified, or is assisted by a person who is qualified, to inspect electrical installations. 241—Annual inspection of amusement devices and passenger ropeways (1) The person with management or control of an amusement device or a passenger ropeway at a workplace must ensure that a detailed inspection of the device or ropeway is carried out at least once every 12 months by a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) An annual inspection must include the following: (a) a check of information about the operational history of the amusement device or passenger ropeway since the last detailed inspection; (b) a check of the log book for the amusement device or passenger ropeway; (c) a check that maintenance and inspections of the amusement device or passenger ropeway have been undertaken under regulation 240; (d) a check that any required tests have been carried out, and that appropriate records have been maintained; (e) a detailed inspection of the amusement device or passenger ropeway to ensure compliance with the Act and these regulations (including a specific inspection of the critical components of the amusement device or passenger ropeway). (3) The regulator may extend the date for an inspection by up to 35 days if an inspection is scheduled to coincide with the same event each year. (4) If the date is extended under subregulation (3), the new date is the date from which future annual inspections of the amusement device or passenger ropeway are determined. (5) In this regulation, a competent person is a person who— (a) in the case of an inflatable device (continuously blown) with a platform height less than 9 metres—has acquired through training, qualification or experience the knowledge and skills to inspect the device; or (b) in the case of any other amusement device or a passenger ropeway— (i) has acquired through training, qualification or experience the knowledge and skills to inspect the plant; and (ii) is— (A) registered, or eligible to be registered, on the National Professional Engineers Register administered by the Institution of Engineers, Australia; or (B) a member, or eligible to be a member, of the Institution of Engineers Australia with the status of Chartered Professional Engineer; or (c) in the case of any amusement device or passenger ropeway—is determined by the regulator to be a competent person. (6) The regulator may, on the application of a person, make a determination in relation to the person for the purposes of subregulation (5)(c) if the regulator considers that exceptional circumstances exist. (7) An annual inspection carried out under an equivalent provision of a corresponding WHS law is taken to be an annual inspection for the purposes of this regulation. 242—Log book and manuals for amusement devices (1) The person with management or control of an amusement device at a workplace, in addition to complying with the record‑keeping requirements of regulation 237, must ensure that— (a) the log book for the amusement device records the details required under subregulation (1a); and (b) the log book and operating and maintenance manuals for the amusement device are kept with the amusement device. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (1a) The log book for an amusement device must record— (a) for each occasion on which the device is erected, details (including the date) of the erection; and (b) for each occasion on which the device is stored, details of the storage; and (c) details of the maintenance of the device; and (d) for each day on which the device is operated, the number of hours for which it is operated; and (e) the total number of hours for which the device has ever been operated; and (f) details of any faults, or other matters relevant to the safety of the device, identified during its operation; and (g) the following details for each person who operates the device: (i) the person's name; (ii) whether the person has been provided with instruction and training in the proper operation of the device; (iii) for each occasion on which instruction or training in the proper operation of the device is provided to the person— (A) the date; and (B) a summary of the instruction or training; and (C) the name and qualifications of the instructor or trainer; and (h) details of each statutory notice issued in relation to the device, including— (i) the date on which the notice was issued; and (ii) the reasons for issuing the notice; and (iii) any action taken in response to the notice; and (iv) for a notice given under a corresponding WHS law—the location of the device when the notice was issued. Note— See also regulation 238(2)(c). (2) The person with management or control of an amusement device at a workplace must ensure that persons involved in the commissioning, installation, use, storage and testing, and the decommissioning, dismantling and disposal, of an amusement device are given— (a) the log book for the amusement device; and (b) the operating and maintenance manuals for the amusement device. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (3) The person with management or control of an amusement device at a workplace must make the log book for the device available to any person to whom the person relinquishes control of the device. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (4) In this regulation— statutory notice means— (a) an improvement notice, prohibition notice or infringement notice; or (b) an improvement notice, prohibition notice or infringement notice under a corresponding WHS law. Note— Regulation 237(5) requires the person with management or control of the amusement device to give the log book and maintenance records to the person being supplied with the plant. Part 3—Registration of plant designs and items of plant Note— In this Part, plant includes a structure (see definition of plant in regulation 5). Division 1—Plant designs to be registered 243—Plant design to be registered The design of an item of plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 must be registered under this Part. Note— See section 42 of the Act. 244—Altered plant designs to be registered (1) If the design of an item of plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 that is registered under this Part is altered, the altered design must be registered under this Part. Note— See section 42 of the Act. (2) In this regulation a reference to the alteration of a design is a reference to an alteration that may affect health or safety. (3) This regulation does not apply in relation to a tower crane or a gantry crane if— (a) the crane is relocated for use in a different workplace; and (b) the design of the supporting structure or foundations of the crane is altered in accordance with a site‑specific design prepared for the purpose of the safe operation of the crane at the new location; and (c) the design of the crane is not altered in any other way. 245—Recognition of designs registered by corresponding regulator (1) A design of an item of plant is not required to be registered under this Part if the design is registered under a corresponding WHS law. (2) A design referred to in subregulation (1) that is altered is not required to be registered under this Part if the altered design is registered by the corresponding regulator that registered the original design. Division 2—Items of plant to be registered 246—Items of plant to be registered (1) An item of plant specified in Part 2 of Schedule 5 must be registered under this Part. Note— See section 42 of the Act. (2) The purpose of registering an item of plant is to ensure that it is inspected by a competent person and is safe to operate. 247—Recognition of plant registered by corresponding regulator An item of plant is not required to be registered under this Part if the plant is registered under a corresponding WHS law. Division 3—Registration process for plant designs 248—Application of Division 3 This Division applies to the registration of a design of an item of plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5. 249—Who can apply to register a plant design (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that designs an item of plant may apply to the regulator for the registration of the design of that item of plant. (2) A person with management or control of an item of plant at a workplace may apply to the regulator for the registration of the design of that item of plant. 250—Application for registration (1) An application for registration of the design of an item of plant must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the applicant's name; (b) whether or not the applicant is a body corporate; (c) if the applicant conducts the business or undertaking under a business name—that business name and a certificate or other written evidence of the registration of the business name; (d) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (e) a statement signed by the designer of the item of plant— (i) stating that the designer has complied with the designer's obligations under section 22 of the Act in relation to the design; and (ii) specifying the published technical standards and engineering principles used in the design; and (f) a design verification statement that accords with regulation 251; (g) representational drawings of the design; (h) a declaration that the applicant does not hold an equivalent registration under a corresponding WHS law. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) Any drawings or other documents provided with the application must be capable of being kept in an electronic form. (4) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 251—Design verification statement The design verification statement must— (a) be written and signed by a person who is eligible to be a design verifier for the design; and (b) state that the design was produced in accordance with published technical standards or engineering principles specified in the statement; and (c) include— (i) the name, business address and qualifications (if applicable) of the design verifier; and (ii) if applicable, the name and business address of the organisation for which the design verifier works. 252—Who can be the design verifier (1) A person is eligible to be a design verifier for the design of an item of plant if the person is a competent person. (2) Despite subregulation (1), a person is not eligible to be a design verifier for the design of an item of plant if the person was involved in the production of the design. 253—Duty of design verifier A design verifier of the design of an item of plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 must document the design verification process carried out by that person and the results of that process. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 254—Design verification statements not to be made in certain circumstances A person must not make a design verification statement for the design of an item of plant specified in Part 1 of Schedule 5 if the person— (a) is not eligible to be a design verifier for that design; or (b) has not carried out a verification of the design. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 255—Additional information (1) If an application for registration of a design of an item of plant does not contain enough information to enable the regulator to make a decision whether or not to grant the registration, the regulator may ask the applicant to provide additional information. (2) A request for additional information must— (a) specify the date (not being less than 28 days after the request) by which the additional information is to be given; and (b) be confirmed in writing. (3) If an applicant does not provide the additional information by the date specified, the application is taken to have been withdrawn. (4) The regulator may make more than 1 request for additional information under this regulation. 256—Decision on application (1) Subject to subregulation (3), the regulator must grant the registration if satisfied about the matters referred to in subregulation (2). (2) The regulator must be satisfied about the following: (a) the application has been made in accordance with this Division; (b) the design is not registered under a corresponding WHS law; (c) if the applicant is an individual, the applicant— (i) resides in this State; or (ii) resides outside this State and satisfies the regulator that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the registration; (d) if the applicant is a body corporate, the applicant's registered office— (i) is located in this State; or (ii) is located outside this State and the applicant has satisfied the regulator that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the registration; (e) the applicant is able to ensure compliance with any conditions that will apply to the registration. (3) The regulator must refuse to grant a registration if satisfied that, in making the application, the applicant has— (a) given information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (b) failed to give any material information that should have been given. (4) If the regulator decides to grant the registration, it must notify the applicant within 14 days after making the decision. (5) If the regulator does not make a decision within 120 days after receiving the application or the additional information requested under regulation 255, the regulator is taken to have refused to grant the registration applied for. Note— A refusal to grant a registration (including under subregulation (5)) is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 257—Refusal of registration—process (1) If the regulator proposes to refuse to grant a registration, the regulator must give the applicant a written notice— (a) informing the applicant of the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the applicant that the applicant may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1), the regulator must— (a) if the applicant has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal to grant the registration—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the applicant has made a submission—decide whether to grant or refuse to grant the registration; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the applicant written notice of the decision, including the reasons for the decision. Note— A refusal to grant a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 258—Conditions of registration (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on the registration of a plant design. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions in relation to 1 or more of the following: (a) the use and maintenance of plant manufactured to the design; (b) the recording or keeping of information; (c) the provision of information to the regulator. Notes— 1 A person must comply with the conditions of registration (see section 45 of the Act). 2 A decision to impose a condition on a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 259—Duration of registration of plant design A registration of a plant design takes effect on the day it is granted and is granted for an unlimited duration. 260—Plant design registration number (1) This regulation applies if the regulator registers a design of an item of plant. (2) The regulator must issue a plant design registration number for the design to the applicant. (3) The person to whom the plant design registration number is issued must give the registration number to the manufacturer, importer or supplier of plant manufactured to that design. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The manufacturer, supplier or importer of plant to whom a plant design registration number is given under this regulation must give that number to the person with management or control of the plant— (a) manufactured to that design; or (b) supplied to that person by the manufacturer, supplier or importer. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (5) The person with management or control of plant at a workplace for which a plant design is registered must ensure that the design registration number is kept readily accessible in the vicinity of the plant at all times. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 261—Registration document (1) If the regulator registers a design of an item of plant, the regulator must issue to the applicant a registration document in the form determined by the regulator. (2) The registration document must include the following: (a) the name of the registration holder; (b) if the registration holder conducts the business or undertaking under a business name, that business name; (c) the registration number of the plant design; (d) any conditions imposed on the registration by the regulator; (e) the date on which the registration was granted. 262—Registration document to be available (1) A registration holder must keep the registration document available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the registration document is not in the registration holder's possession because— (a) it has been returned to the regulator under regulation 287; or (b) the registration holder has applied for but has not received, a replacement registration document under regulation 288. 263—Disclosure of design information (1) Subject to this regulation, the regulator must not disclose to any person any confidential information provided by an applicant for registration of a design of an item of plant. (2) The regulator may disclose information about a plant design in either of the following circumstances: (a) to a corresponding regulator or an authorised officer of a corresponding regulator, at the request of the corresponding regulator; (b) to any person authorised by the applicant for the registration of the design. (3) The regulator may give a copy of the design verification statement to— (a) workers engaged by the person with management or control at a workplace of plant manufactured to the design; or (b) a health and safety representative of those workers. (4) The regulator may provide the person with management or control of plant with the minimum information about the plant design that is necessary for the safe operation of the plant if the registration holder for the design of the plant cannot be located or no longer exists. Division 4—Registration process for an item of plant 264—Application of Division 4 This Division applies in relation to the registration of an item of plant specified in Part 2 of Schedule 5 as requiring registration. 265—Who can apply to register an item of plant A person with management or control of an item of plant may apply to the regulator for the registration of that item of plant. 266—Application for registration (1) An application for registration of an item of plant must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the applicant's name; (b) whether or not the applicant is a body corporate; (c) if the applicant conducts the business or undertaking under a business name—that business name and a certificate or other written evidence of the registration of the business name; (d) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (e) sufficient information to clearly identify the item of plant; (g) if the design of the item of plant was also required to be registered under this Part, details of— (i) the plant design registration number; and (ii) the regulator or corresponding regulator that registered the design; (h) a statement that the item of plant has been inspected by a competent person and assessed by that person as being safe to operate; (i) the date that the item of plant was first commissioned or was first registered, if known, whichever occurred first; (j) a declaration that the applicant does not hold an equivalent registration under a corresponding WHS law. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 267—When is a person competent to inspect plant A person is a competent person to inspect an item of plant for registration if the person has— (a) educational or vocational qualifications in an engineering discipline relevant to the plant to be inspected; or (b) knowledge of the technical standards relevant to the plant to be inspected. 268—Additional information (1) If an application for registration of an item of plant does not contain enough information to enable the regulator to make a decision whether or not to grant the registration, the regulator may ask the applicant to provide additional information. (2) A request for additional information must— (a) specify the date (not being less than 28 days after the request) by which the additional information is to be given; and (b) be confirmed in writing. (3) If an applicant does not provide the additional information by the date specified, the application is taken to have been withdrawn. (4) The regulator may make more than 1 request for additional information under this regulation. 269—Decision on application (1) Subject to subregulation (3), the regulator must grant the registration if satisfied about the matters referred to in subregulation (2). (2) The regulator must be satisfied about the following: (a) the application has been made in accordance with this Division; (b) the item of plant is not registered under a corresponding WHS law; (c) the item of plant is— (i) located in this State; or (ii) located outside this State and the regulator is satisfied that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the registration; (d) if the applicant is an individual, the applicant— (i) resides in this State; or (ii) resides outside this State and satisfies the regulator that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the registration; (e) if the applicant is a body corporate, the applicant's registered office— (i) is located in this State; or (ii) is located outside this State and the applicant has satisfied the regulator that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the registration; (f) the applicant is able to ensure compliance with any conditions that will apply to the registration. (3) The regulator must refuse to grant a registration if satisfied that, in making the application, the applicant has— (a) given information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (b) failed to give any material information that should have been given. (4) If the regulator decides to grant the registration, it must notify the applicant within 14 days after making the decision. (5) If the regulator does not make a decision within 120 days after receiving the application or additional information requested under regulation 268, the regulator is taken to have refused to grant the registration applied for. Note— A refusal to grant a registration (including under subregulation (5)) is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 270—Refusal of registration—process (1) If the regulator proposes to refuse to grant a registration, the regulator must give the applicant a written notice— (a) informing the applicant of the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the applicant that the applicant may, by a specified date, (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice) make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1), the regulator must— (a) if the applicant has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal to grant the registration—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the applicant has made a submission—decide whether to grant or refuse to grant the registration; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision—give the applicant written notice of the decision, including the reasons for the decision. Note— A refusal to grant a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 271—Conditions of registration (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on the registration of an item of plant. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions in relation to 1 or more of the following: (a) the use and maintenance of the item of plant; (b) the recording or keeping of information; (c) the provision of information to the regulator. Notes— 1 A person must comply with the conditions of registration (see section 45 of the Act). 2 A decision to impose a condition on a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 272—Duration of registration A registration of an item of plant takes effect on the day it is granted and expires 5 years after that day. 273—Plant registration number (1) This regulation applies if the regulator registers an item of plant. (2) The regulator must issue a plant registration number for the plant to the registration holder within 14 days after that registration. (3) The registration holder must give the plant registration number to the person with management or control of the plant at a workplace as soon as practicable after being issued with the number under subregulation (2). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person with management or control of the plant at a workplace must ensure that the plant registration number is marked on or near the item of plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 274—Registration document (1) If the regulator registers an item of plant, the regulator must issue to the applicant within 14 days a registration document in the form determined by the regulator. (2) The registration document must include the following: (a) the name of the registration holder; (b) if the registration holder conducts the business or undertaking under a business name, that business name; (c) the registration number for the item of plant; (d) any conditions imposed on the registration by the regulator; (e) the date on which the plant was first commissioned or first registered, whichever occurred first; (f) the date on which the registration was granted; (g) the expiry date of the registration. 275—Registration document to be available (1) The holder of the registration of an item of plant must keep the registration document available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the registration document is not in the registration holder's possession because— (a) it has been returned to the regulator under regulation 287; or (b) the registration holder has applied for, but has not received, a replacement registration document under regulation 288. 276—Regulator may renew registration The regulator may, on application, renew the registration of an item of plant. 277—Application for renewal (1) An application for renewal of a registration of an item of plant must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the applicant's name; (b) any other evidence of identity required by the regulator; (c) if the applicant conducts the business or undertaking under a business name, that business name and a certificate or other written evidence of the registration of the business name; (d) the registration number of the item of plant; (e) a declaration that the item of plant has been maintained, inspected and tested in accordance with regulation 213. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. (4) The application must be made before the expiry of the registration. 278—Registration continues in force until application is decided If a registration holder applies under regulation 277 for the renewal of a registration, the registration is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this regulation, have ended until the registration holder is given notice of the decision on the application. 279—Decision on application (1) The regulator must renew the registration of an item of plant if the regulator is satisfied that— (a) the application for renewal has been made in accordance with this Division; and (b) the plant has been maintained, inspected and tested in accordance with regulation 213. (2) For the purposes of this Division— (a) regulation 268 applies as if a reference in that regulation to an application for registration were a reference to an application to renew registration; and (b) regulations 269 (except subregulation (5)), 271 and 272 apply as if a reference in those regulations to the grant of a registration were a reference to the renewal of a registration; and (c) regulation 270 applies as if a reference in that regulation to a refusal to grant a registration were a reference to a refusal to renew a registration. Note— A refusal to renew a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 280—Status of registration during review (1) If the regulator gives the registration holder written notice of a decision to refuse to renew the registration, the registration continues to have effect in accordance with this regulation. (2) If the registration holder does not apply for internal review, the registration continues to have effect until the last of the following events: (a) the expiry of the registration; (b) the end of the period for applying for an internal review. (3) If the registration holder applies for an internal review, the registration continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the registration holder withdraws the application for review; (b) the regulator makes a decision on the review. (4) If the registration holder does not apply for an external review, the registration continues to have effect until the end of the time for applying for an external review. (5) If the registration holder applies for an external review, the registration continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the registration holder withdraws the application for review; (b) SAET makes a decision on the review. (6) The registration continues to have effect under this regulation even if its expiry date passes. Division 5—Changes to registration and registration documents 281—Application of Division This Division applies to— (a) the registration of a design of an item of plant; and (b) the registration of an item of plant. 282—Changes to information (1) A registration holder must give the regulator written notice of any change to— (a) the registration holder's name; or (b) any of the information referred to in regulations 250, 255(1), 266 or 268(1) within 14 days after the registration holder becomes aware of the change. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) applies whether the information was given in the application for grant of the registration or in any other circumstance. (3) Without limiting subregulation (1), a registration holder for an item of plant must give written notice to the regulator if— (a) the item of plant is altered to an extent or in a way that requires the plant to be subject to new control measures; or (b) the item of plant is usually fixed and is relocated; or (c) the registration holder no longer has management or control of the item of plant. 283—Amendment of registration imposed by regulator (1) The regulator may, on its own initiative, amend a registration, including by amending the registration to— (a) vary or delete a condition of the registration; or (b) impose a new condition on the registration. (2) Before amending a registration, the regulator must give the registration holder written notice— (a) setting out the proposed amendment and the reasons for it; and (b) advising the registration holder that the registration holder may make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed amendment within a specified period (being not less than 28 days from the date of the notice). (3) After the date specified in the notice under subregulation (2), the regulator must— (a) if the registration holder has made a submission in relation to the proposed amendment—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the registration holder has made a submission—decide— (i) to make the proposed amendment; or (ii) not to make any amendment; or (iii) to make a different amendment that results from consideration of any submission made by the registration holder; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the registration holder a written notice that— (i) sets out the amendment, if any, or states that no amendment is to be made; and (ii) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed amendment—sets out the regulator's reasons for making the amendment; and (iii) specifies the date (being not less than 28 days after the registration holder is given the notice) on which the amendment, if any, takes effect. Note— A decision to amend a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 284—Amendment on application by registration holder (1) The regulator, on application by the registration holder, may amend a registration, including by amending the registration to vary or delete a condition of the registration. (2) If the regulator proposes to refuse to amend the registration, the regulator must give the registration holder a written notice— (a) informing the registration holder of the proposed refusal to amend the registration and the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the registration holder that the registration holder may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (3) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (2), the regulator must— (a) if the registration holder has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the registration holder has made a submission—decide— (i) to make the amendment applied for; or (ii) not to make any amendment; or (iii) to make a different amendment that results from consideration of any submission made by the registration holder; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the registration holder written notice of the decision in accordance with this regulation. (4) If the regulator makes the amendment applied for, the notice under subregulation (3)(c) must specify the date (being not less than 28 days after the registration holder is given the notice) on which the amendment takes effect. (5) If the regulator refuses to make the amendment or makes a different amendment, the notice under subregulation (3)(c) must— (a) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed refusal of the amendment—set out the reasons for the regulator's decision; and (b) if the regulator makes a different amendment— (i) set out the amendment; and (ii) specify the date (being not less than 28 days after the registration holder is given the notice) on which the amendment takes effect. Note— A refusal to make the amendment applied for, or a decision to make a different amendment, is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 285—Minor corrections to registration The regulator may make minor amendments to a registration, including an amendment— (a) to correct an obvious error; or (b) to change an address; or (c) that does not impose a significant burden on the registration holder. 286—Regulator to give amended registration document If the regulator amends a registration and considers that the registration document requires amendment, the regulator must give the registration holder an amended registration document within 14 days after making the decision to amend the registration. 287—Registration holder to return registration document A registration holder must return the registration document to the regulator for amendment at the written request of the regulator within the time specified in the request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 288—Replacement registration document (1) A registration holder must notify the regulator as soon as practicable if the registration document is lost, stolen or destroyed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If a registration document is lost, stolen or destroyed, the registration holder may apply to the regulator for a replacement document. Note— A registration holder is required to keep a registration document available for inspection (see regulation 275). (3) An application for a replacement registration document must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (4) The application must— (a) include a declaration describing the circumstances in which the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed; and Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (b) be accompanied by the relevant fee. (5) The regulator must issue a replacement registration document if satisfied that the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed. (6) If the regulator refuses to issue a replacement registration document, it must give the registration holder written notice of this decision, including the reasons for the decision within 14 days of making the decision. Note— A refusal to issue a replacement registration document is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). Division 6—Cancellation of registration 288A—Application of Division This Division applies to— (a) the registration of a design of an item of plant; and (b) the registration of an item of plant. 288B—Regulator may cancel registration The regulator may cancel a registration if satisfied that— (a) in making the application, the applicant— (i) gave information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given; or (b) the design of the item of plant, or the item of plant (as applicable), is unsafe. Note— A decision to cancel a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 288C—Cancellation process (1) Before cancelling a registration, the regulator must give the registration holder written notice— (a) setting out the proposal to cancel the registration and the reasons for it; and (b) advising the registration holder that the registration holder may make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed cancellation within a specified period (being not less than 28 days from the date of the notice). (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1), the regulator must— (a) if the registration holder has made a submission in relation to the proposed cancellation—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the registration holder has made a submission—decide— (i) to cancel the registration; or (ii) not to cancel the registration; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the registration holder written notice that— (i) states whether or not the registration is cancelled; and (ii) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed cancellation—sets out the regulator's reasons for cancelling the registration; and (iii) specifies the date (being not less than the 28 days after the registration holder is given the notice) on which the cancellation, if any, takes effect. Note— A decision to cancel a registration is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 288D—Registration holder to return registration document A registration holder who receives a cancellation notice under regulation 288C must return the registration document to the regulator at the written request of the regulator within the time specified in the request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Chapter 6—Construction work Part 1—Preliminary 289—Meaning of construction work (1) In this Chapter— construction work means any work carried out in connection with the construction, alteration, conversion, fitting‑out, commissioning, renovation, repair, maintenance, refurbishment, demolition, decommissioning or dismantling of a structure. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), construction work includes the following: (a) any installation or testing carried out in connection with an activity referred to in subregulation (1); (b) the removal from the workplace of any product or waste resulting from demolition; (c) the prefabrication or testing of elements, at a place specifically established for the construction work, for use in construction work; (d) the assembly of prefabricated elements to form a structure, or the disassembly of prefabricated elements forming part of a structure; (e) the installation, testing or maintenance of an essential service in relation to a structure; (f) any work connected with an excavation; (g) any work connected with any preparatory work or site preparation (including landscaping as part of site preparation) carried out in connection with an activity referred to in subregulation (1); (h) an activity referred to in subregulation (1), that is carried out on, under or near water, including work on buoys and obstructions to navigation. (3) In this Chapter— construction work does not include any of the following: (a) the manufacture of plant; (b) the prefabrication of elements, other than at a place specifically established for the construction work, for use in construction work; (c) the construction or assembly of a structure that once constructed or assembled is intended to be transported to another place; (d) testing, maintenance or repair work of a minor nature carried out in connection with a structure; (e) mining or the exploration for or extraction of minerals. 290—Meaning of structure (1) In this Chapter— structure has the same meaning as it has in the Act. Examples— A roadway or pathway. A ship or submarine. Foundations, earth retention works and other earthworks, including river works and sea defence works. Formwork, falsework or any other structure designed or used to provide support, access or containment during construction work. An airfield. A dock, harbour, channel, bridge, viaduct, lagoon or dam. A sewer or sewerage or drainage works. (2) This Chapter does not apply to plant unless— (a) the plant is— (i) a ship or submarine; or (ii) a pipe or pipeline; or (iii) an underground tank; or (iv) designed or used to provide support, access or containment during work in connection with construction work; or (b) work on the plant relates to work that is carried out in connection with construction work; or (c) the plant is fixed plant on which outage work or overhaul work that involves or may involve work being carried out by 5 or more persons conducting businesses or undertakings at any point in time. Note— This Chapter does not apply to the manufacture of plant (see paragraph (a) of the definition of construction work in regulation 289(3)). 291—Meaning of high risk construction work In this Chapter— high risk construction work means construction work that— (a) involves a risk of a person falling more than 3 metres; or (b) is carried out on a telecommunication tower; or (c) involves demolition of an element of a structure that is load‑bearing or otherwise related to the physical integrity of the structure; or (d) involves, or is likely to involve, the disturbance of asbestos; or (e) involves structural alterations or repairs that require temporary support to prevent collapse; or (f) is carried out in or near a confined space; or (g) is carried out in or near— (i) a shaft or trench with an excavated depth greater than 1.5 metres; or (ii) a tunnel; or (h) involves the use of explosives; or (i) is carried out on or near pressurised gas distribution mains or piping; or (j) is carried out on or near chemical, fuel or refrigerant lines; or (k) is carried out on or near energised electrical installations or services; or (l) is carried out in an area that may have a contaminated or flammable atmosphere; or (m) involves tilt‑up or precast concrete; or (n) is carried out on, in or adjacent to a road, railway, shipping lane or other traffic corridor that is in use by traffic other than pedestrians; or (o) is carried out in an area at a workplace in which there is any movement of powered mobile plant; or (p) is carried out in an area in which there are artificial extremes of temperature; or (q) is carried out in or near water or other liquid that involves a risk of drowning; or (r) involves diving work. 292—Meaning of construction project In this Chapter, a construction project is a project that involves construction work where the cost of the construction work is $450 000 or more. 293—Meaning of principal contractor (1) In this Chapter, a person conducting a business or undertaking that commissions a construction project is, subject to this regulation, the principal contractor for the project. (2) If the person referred to in subregulation (1) engages another person conducting a business or undertaking as principal contractor for the construction project and authorises the person to have management or control of the workplace and to discharge the duties of a principal contractor under this Chapter, the person so engaged is the principal contractor for the project. (3) If the owner of residential premises is an individual who directly or indirectly engages a person conducting a business or undertaking to undertake a construction project in relation to the premises, the person so engaged is the principal contractor for the project if the person has management or control of the workplace. (4) A construction project has only one principal contractor at any specific time. Note— A person with management or control of a workplace must comply with section 20 of the Act. Part 2—Duties of designer of structure and person who commissions construction work 294—Person who commissions work must consult with designer (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that commissions construction work in relation to a structure must, so far as is reasonably practicable, consult with the designer of the whole or any part of the structure about how to ensure that risks to health and safety arising from the design during the construction work are— (a) eliminated, so far as is reasonably practicable; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risks, minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) Consultation must include giving the designer any information that the person who commissions the construction work has in relation to the hazards and risks at the workplace where the construction work is to be carried out. 295—Designer must give safety report to person who commissions design (1) The designer of a structure or any part of a structure that is to be constructed must give the person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned the design a written report that specifies the hazards relating to the design of the structure that, so far as the designer is reasonably aware— (a) create a risk to the health or safety of persons who are to carry out any construction work on the structure or part; and (b) are associated only with the particular design and not with other designs of the same type of structure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) If the person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions a construction project did not commission the design of the construction project, the person must take all reasonable steps to obtain a copy of the written report referred to in subregulation (1) in relation to that design. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 296—Person who commissions project must give information to principal contractor If a person conducting a business or undertaking that commissions a construction project engages a principal contractor for the project, the person must give the principal contractor any information the person has in relation to hazards and risks at or in the vicinity of the workplace where the construction work is to be carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Part 3—Duties of person conducting business or undertaking Note— As a principal contractor is a person conducting a business or undertaking, this Part also applies to a principal contractor. Division 1—General 297—Management of risks to health and safety A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage risks associated with the carrying out of construction work in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). 298—Security of workplace (1) A person with management or control of a workplace at which construction work is carried out must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the workplace is secured from unauthorised access. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) In complying with subregulation (1), the person must have regard to all relevant matters including— (a) risks to health and safety arising from unauthorised access to the workplace; and (b) the likelihood of unauthorised access occurring; and Example— The proximity of the workplace to places frequented by children, including schools, parks and shopping precincts. (c) to the extent that unauthorised access to the workplace cannot be prevented—how to isolate hazards within the workplace. Division 2—High risk construction work—safe work method statements 299—Safe work method statement required for high risk construction work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that includes the carrying out of high risk construction work must, before high risk construction work commences, ensure that a safe work method statement for the proposed work— (a) is prepared; or (b) has already been prepared by another person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A safe work method statement must— (a) identify the work that is high risk construction work; and (b) specify hazards relating to the high risk construction work and risks to health and safety associated with those hazards; and (c) describe the measures to be implemented to control the risks; and (d) describe how the control measures are to be implemented, monitored and reviewed. (3) A safe work method statement must— (a) be prepared taking into account all relevant matters including— (i) circumstances at the workplace that may affect the way in which the high risk construction work is carried out; and (ii) if the high risk construction work is carried out in connection with a construction project—the WHS management plan that has been prepared for the workplace; and (b) be set out and expressed in a way that is readily accessible and understandable to persons who use it. 300—Compliance with safe work method statement (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that includes the carrying out of high risk construction work must put in place arrangements for ensuring that high risk construction work is carried out in accordance with the safe work method statement for the work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If high risk construction work is not carried out in accordance with the safe work method statement for the work, the person must ensure that the work— (a) is stopped immediately or as soon as it is safe to do so; and (b) resumed only in accordance with the statement. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 301—Safe work method statement—copy to be given to principal contractor A person conducting a business or undertaking that includes carrying out high risk construction work in connection with a construction project must, before the high risk construction work commences, ensure that a copy of the safe work method statement for the work is given to the principal contractor. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432 (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 302—Review of safe work method statement A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a safe work method statement is reviewed and as necessary revised if relevant control measures are revised under regulation 38. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 303—Safe work method statement must be kept (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a person conducting a business or undertaking must keep a copy of the safe work method statement until the high risk construction work to which it relates is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the high risk construction work to which the statement relates, the person must keep the statement for at least 2 years after the incident occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) The person must ensure that for the period for which the statement must be kept under this regulation, a copy is readily accessible to any worker engaged by the person to carry out the high risk construction work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (4) The person must ensure that for the period for which the statement must be kept under this regulation, a copy is available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Division 3—Excavation work 304—Excavation work—underground essential services information (1) This regulation applies in relation to a part of a workplace where excavation work is being carried out and any adjacent areas. (2) A person with management or control of the workplace must take all reasonable steps to obtain current underground essential services information about the areas referred to in subregulation (1) before directing or allowing the excavation work to commence. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) The person with management or control of the workplace must provide the information obtained under subregulation (2) to any person engaged by the person to carry out the excavation work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (4) The person with management or control of the workplace and any person conducting a business or undertaking who is given information under subregulation (3) must have regard to the information referred to in subregulation (2) in carrying out or directing or allowing the carrying out of the excavation work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Note— Legislation relating to the essential services may also impose duties on the person conducting the business or undertaking and the persons carrying out the work. (5) The person with control or management of the workplace must ensure that the information referred to in subregulation (2) is available for inspection under the Act for the period specified in subregulation (6). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (6) The information must be available— (a) if a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the excavation work to which the information relates—for at least 2 years after the incident occurs; and (b) in every other case—until the excavation work is completed. (7) In this regulation— underground essential services means essential services that use pipes, cables or other associated plant located underground; underground essential services information, in relation to proposed excavation work, means the following information about underground essential services that may be affected by the excavation: (a) the essential services that may be affected; (b) the location, including the depth, of any pipes, cables or other plant associated with the affected essential services; (c) any conditions on the proposed excavation work. 305—Management of risks to health and safety associated with excavation work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage risks to health and safety associated with excavation work, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) The risks this regulation applies to include the following: (a) a person falling into an excavation; (b) a person being trapped by the collapse of an excavation; (c) a person working in an excavation being struck by a falling thing; (d) a person working in an excavation being exposed to an airborne contaminant. (3) In complying with subregulation (1), the person must have regard to all relevant matters including the following: (a) the nature of the excavation; (b) the nature of the excavation work, including the range of possible methods of carrying out the work; (c) the means of entry into and exit from the excavation, if applicable. 306—Additional controls—trenches (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking, who proposes to excavate a trench at least 1.5 metres deep must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the work area is secured from unauthorised access (including inadvertent entry). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In complying with subregulation (1), the person must have regard to all relevant matters including— (a) risks to health and safety arising from unauthorised access to the work area; and (b) the likelihood of unauthorised access occurring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In addition, the person must minimise the risk to any person arising from the collapse of the trench by ensuring that all sides of the trench are adequately supported by doing 1 or more of the following: (a) shoring by shielding or other comparable means; (b) benching; (c) battering. (4) Subregulation (3) does not apply if the person receives written advice from a geotechnical engineer that all sides of the trench are safe from collapse. (5) An advice under subregulation (4)— (a) may be subject to a condition that specified natural occurrences may create a risk of collapse; and (b) must state the period of time to which the advice applies. Part 4—Additional duties of principal contractor 307—Application of Chapter 6 Part 4 This Part— (a) applies in relation to a construction project; and (b) imposes duties on the principal contractor for the project that are additional to the duties imposed under Chapter 6 Part 3. Note— As a principal contractor has management or control of a workplace, the principal contractor is also subject to duties imposed by the Act and these regulations on a person with management or control of a workplace. 308—Specific control measure—signage identifying principal contractor (1) The principal contractor for a construction project must ensure that signs are installed, that— (a) show the principal contractor's name and telephone contact numbers (including an after hours telephone number); and (b) show the location of the site office for the project, if any; and (c) are clearly visible from outside the workplace, or the work area of the workplace, where the construction project is being undertaken. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) Subregulation (1) operates in addition to the requirements of the Building Work Contractors Act 1995. 309—WHS management plan—preparation (1) The principal contractor for a construction project must prepare a written WHS management plan for the workplace before work on the project commences. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A WHS management plan must include the following: (a) the names, positions and health and safety responsibilities of all persons at the workplace whose positions or roles involve specific health and safety responsibilities in connection with the project; (b) the arrangements in place, between any persons conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace where the construction project is being undertaken, for consultation, co‑operation and the co‑ordination of activities in relation to compliance with their duties under the Act and these regulations; (c) the arrangements in place for managing any work health and safety incidents that occur; (d) any site‑specific health and safety rules, and the arrangements for ensuring that all persons at the workplace are informed of these rules; (e) the arrangements for the collection and any assessment, monitoring and review of safe work method statements at the workplace. 310—WHS management plan—duty to inform The principal contractor for a construction project must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that each person who is to carry out construction work in connection with the project is, before commencing work, made aware of— (a) the content of the WHS management plan for the workplace; and (b) the person's right to inspect the WHS management plan under regulation 313. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 311—WHS management plan—review (1) The principal contractor for a construction project must review and, as necessary, revise the WHS management plan to ensure that it remains up‑to‑date. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The principal contractor for a construction project must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that each person carrying out construction work in connection with the project is made aware of any revision to the WHS management plan. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 312—High risk construction work—safe work method statements The principal contractor for a construction project must take all reasonable steps to obtain a copy of the safe work method statement relating to high risk construction work before the high risk construction work commences. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Note— The WHS management plan contains arrangements for co‑operation between persons conducting a business or undertaking at the construction project workplace, including in relation to the preparation of safe work method statements (see regulation 309(2)(b) and (e)). 313—Copy of WHS management plan must be kept (1) Subject to subregulation (2), the principal contractor for a construction project must ensure that a copy of the WHS management plan for the project is kept until the project to which it relates is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the construction project to which the statement relates, the person must keep the WHS management plan for at least 2 years after the incident occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) The person must ensure that, for the period for which the WHS management plan must be kept under this regulation, a copy is readily accessible to any person who is to carry out construction work in connection with the construction project. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person must ensure that for the period for which the WHS management plan must be kept under this regulation, a copy is available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (5) In this regulation— WHS management plan means the initial plan and all revised versions of the plan. 314—Further health and safety duties—specific regulations The principal contractor for a construction project must put in place arrangements for ensuring compliance at the workplace with the following: (a) Division 2 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (b) Division 3 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (c) Division 4 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (d) Division 5 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (e) Division 7 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (f) Division 8 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (g) Division 9 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (h) Division 10 of Chapter 3 Part 2; (i) Chapter 4 Part 4. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— All persons conducting a business or undertaking at the construction project workplace have these same duties (see Chapter 3 Part 2 of these regulations and section 19 of the Act). Section 16 of the Act provides for situations in which more than 1 person has the same duty. 315—Further health and safety duties—specific risks The principal contractor for a construction project must in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1 manage risks to health and safety associated with the following: (a) the storage, movement and disposal of construction materials and waste at the workplace; (b) the storage at the workplace of plant that is not in use; (c) traffic in the vicinity of the workplace that may be affected by construction work carried out in connection with the construction project; (d) essential services at the workplace. Note— WHS Act—section 20 (see regulation 9). Part 5—General construction induction training Division 1—General construction induction training requirements 316—Duty to provide general construction induction training A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that general construction induction training is provided to a worker engaged by the person who is to carry out construction work, if the worker— (a) has not successfully completed general construction induction training; or (b) successfully completed general construction induction training more than 2 years previously and has not carried out construction work in the preceding 2 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 317—Duty to ensure worker has been trained (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must not direct or allow a worker to carry out construction work unless— (a) the worker has successfully completed general construction induction training; and (b) if the worker completed the training more than 2 years previously—the worker has carried out construction work in the preceding 2 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that— (a) the worker holds a general construction induction training card; or (b) if the worker has applied for but not yet been issued with a general construction induction training card, the worker holds a general construction induction training certification, issued within the preceding 60 days. 318—Recognition of general construction induction training cards issued in other jurisdictions (1) In this Part (other than Division 2), a reference to a general construction induction training card includes a reference to a similar card issued under a corresponding WHS law. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a card that is cancelled in the corresponding jurisdiction. Division 2—General construction induction training cards 319—Issue of card (1) A person who has successfully completed general construction induction training in the State may apply to the regulator for a general construction induction training card. (2) The application must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (3) The application must include the following information: (a) the applicant's name and any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (b) either— (i) a general construction induction training certification issued to the applicant; or (ii) a written declaration by the person who provided the general construction induction training on behalf of the relevant RTO that the applicant has successfully completed general construction induction training. (4) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. (5) The application must be made— (a) within 60 days after the issue of the general construction induction training certification; or (b) if the application is accompanied by a declaration referred to in subregulation (3)(b)(ii), at any time after completion of the general construction induction training. (6) The regulator must issue a general construction induction training card to the applicant if— (a) the application has been made in accordance with this regulation; and (b) the regulator is satisfied that the applicant has successfully completed general construction induction training. (7) The regulator must make a decision on the application as soon as practicable. (8) If the regulator has not decided on the application within 60 days, the applicant is taken to hold a general construction induction training card until a decision is made. 320—Content of card A general construction induction training card must— (a) state the following: (i) that the card holder has completed general construction induction training; (ii) the name of the card holder; (iii) the date on which the card was issued; (iv) a unique identifying number; (v) the State in which the card was issued; and (b) contain the card holder's signature. 321—Replacement card (1) If a general construction induction training card issued by the regulator is lost, stolen or destroyed, the card holder may apply to the regulator for a replacement card. Note— A card holder is required to keep the card available for inspection under regulation 326. (2) An application for a replacement general construction induction training card must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (3) The application must— (a) include a declaration about the circumstances in which the card was lost, stolen or destroyed; and (b) be accompanied by the relevant fee. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (4) The regulator may issue a replacement card if satisfied that the original general construction induction training card has been lost, stolen or destroyed. 322—Refusal to issue or replace card The regulator may refuse to issue a general construction induction training card or a replacement general construction induction training card if satisfied that the applicant— (a) gave information that was false or misleading in a material particular; or (b) failed to give information that should have been given; or (c) produced a general construction induction training certification that had been obtained on the basis of the giving of false or misleading information by any person or body. Note— A decision to refuse to issue or replace a general construction induction training card is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 323—Cancellation of card—grounds The regulator may cancel a general construction induction training card issued by the regulator or an RTO if— (a) satisfied that the card holder, when applying for the card— (i) gave information that was false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give information that should have been given; or (iii) produced a general construction induction training certification that had been obtained on the basis of the giving of false or misleading information by any person or body; or (b) not satisfied as to the adequacy of the training provided to the card holder. Note— A decision to cancel a general construction induction training card is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 324—Cancellation of card—process (1) The regulator must, before cancelling a general construction induction training card, give the card holder— (a) written notice of the proposed cancellation that outlines all relevant allegations, facts and circumstances known to the regulator; and (b) a reasonable opportunity to make submissions to the regulator in relation to the proposed cancellation. (2) On cancelling a general construction induction training card, the regulator must give the card holder a written notice of its decision, stating— (a) when the cancellation takes effect; and (b) the reasons for the cancellation; and (c) when the card must be returned to the regulator. 325—RTO may enter agreement to issue cards (1) The regulator may enter into an agreement with an RTO that empowers the RTO to exercise the functions and powers of the regulator under regulations 319, 321, 322 and 323 with any necessary alterations. (2) If an RTO with whom the regulator has entered an agreement under this regulation exercises functions and powers of the regulator in accordance with the agreement, the exercise of those functions and powers has the same effect as if they had been exercised by the regulator. (3) Without limiting subregulation (2)— (a) a decision of an RTO in exercising a function or power of the regulator in accordance with the agreement is taken to be a decision of the regulator; and (b) a general construction induction training card issued by the RTO is taken to have been issued by the regulator. (4) Nothing in an agreement under this regulation prevents the regulator from exercising its functions and powers under this Division. Division 3—Duties of workers 326—Duties of workers (1) A worker carrying out construction work must keep available for inspection under the Act— (a) his or her general construction induction training card; or (b) in the circumstances set out in regulation 319(5), a general induction training certification held by the worker, until a decision is made on the application for the general construction induction training card. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) A card holder, on receiving a cancellation notice under regulation 324(2), must return the card in accordance with the notice. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) Subregulation (1)(a) does not apply if the card is not in the possession of the worker (card holder) because— (a) it has been lost, stolen or destroyed; and (b) the card holder has applied for, but has not received, a replacement card. 327—Alteration of general construction induction training card A person who holds a general construction induction training card must not intentionally or recklessly alter the card. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Chapter 7—Hazardous chemicals Part 1—Hazardous chemicals Note— Most of the obligations in this Part apply to persons conducting businesses or undertakings at a workplace. However, some obligations apply to persons in different capacities, for example importers and suppliers of hazardous chemicals. Division 1—Application of Chapter 7 Part 1 328—Application of Chapter 7 Part 1 (1) This Part applies to— (a) the use, handling and storage of hazardous chemicals at a workplace and the generation of hazardous substances at a workplace; and (b) a pipeline used to convey a hazardous chemical. (2) This Part does not apply to a pipeline— (a) that forms part of a distribution system within the meaning of the Gas Act 1997; or (b) that is a transmission pipeline, or part of a transmission pipeline, to which a pipeline licence under the Petroleum and Geothermal Energy Act 2000 relates; or (c) to which a pipeline licence under the Petroleum (Submerged Lands) Act 1982 relates. (3) This Part applies to the handling or storage of dangerous goods listed in column 2 of table 328, other than at a workplace, if the quantity of the dangerous goods is more than the relevant threshold referred to in column 3 of the table. Table 328 Column 1 Item|Column 2 Dangerous goods|Column 3 Threshold quantities| 1|Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LP gas) (dangerous goods Class 2.1)|If the LP gas is stored in packages outside a building, and connected by piping to appliances within the building that contain the gas—500 L (water capacity)| 2|Compressed gas of Class 2.1 (excluding LP gas), Class 2.2 or compressed oxygen if:| (a) each is in one or more containers in an aggregate capacity not exceeding 50 L; and| || (b) the dangerous goods as a whole form part of a welding set or are used or intended to be used with a portable flame torch.| ||Compressed oxygen or air that is used or intended to be used for medical purposes.| 3|Dangerous goods Class 3|250 L| 4|Pool Chlorine and spa sanitising agents|100 kg or L| 5|Sodium Hypochlorite designated by UN Number 1791 |100 L| 6|Dangerous goods Class 9|100 kg or L| 7|Dangerous goods Packing Group 1|5 kg or L| 8|C1 combustible liquids|1000 L| 9|Dangerous goods Class 2.3|Nil kg or L| 10|Any dangerous goods other than those stated above |100 kg or L| (4) This Part does not apply to hazardous chemicals and explosives being transported by road, rail, sea or air if the transport is regulated under the Dangerous Substances (Dangerous Goods Transport) Regulations 2008 or the law of another jurisdiction. (5) This Part does not apply to the following hazardous chemicals in the circumstances described: (a) hazardous chemicals in batteries when incorporated in plant; (b) fuel, oils or coolants in a container fitted to a vehicle, vessel, aircraft, mobile plant, appliance or other device, if the fuel, oil or coolant is intended for use in the operation of the device; (c) fuel in the fuel container of a domestic or portable fuel burning appliance, if the quantity of fuel does not exceed 25 kilograms or 25 litres; (d) hazardous chemicals in portable firefighting or medical equipment for use in a workplace; (e) hazardous chemicals that form part of the integrated refrigeration system of refrigerated freight containers; (f) potable liquids that are consumer products at retail premises. (6) This Part, other than the following regulations and Schedule 7, does not apply to substances, mixtures or articles categorised as explosives under the GHS: (a) regulation 329; (b) regulation 330; (c) regulation 339; (d) regulation 344; (e) regulation 345. (7) This Part does not apply to the following: (a) food and beverages within the meaning of the Food Standards Australia New Zealand Food Standards Code that are in a package and form intended for human consumption; (b) tobacco or products made of tobacco; (c) therapeutic goods within the meaning of the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 of the Commonwealth at the point of intentional intake by or administration to humans; (d) veterinary chemical products within the meaning of the Agvet Code at the point of intentional administration to animals. Division 2—Obligations relating to safety data sheets and other matters Subdivision 1—Obligations of manufacturers and importers Notes— 1 A manufacturer or importer of hazardous chemicals may also be a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace. 2 A manufacturer or importer is defined in section 23 or 24 of the Act as a person conducting a business or undertaking of manufacturing or importing. 329—Classification of hazardous chemicals The manufacturer or importer of a substance, mixture or article must, before first supplying it to a workplace— (a) determine whether the substance, mixture or article is a hazardous chemical; and (b) if the substance, mixture or article is a hazardous chemical—ensure that the hazardous chemical is correctly classified in accordance with Part 1 of Schedule 9. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 330—Manufacturer or importer to prepare and provide safety data sheets (1) A manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical must prepare a safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical— (a) before first manufacturing or importing the hazardous chemical; or (b) if that is not practicable—as soon as practicable after first manufacturing or importing the hazardous chemical and before first supplying it to a workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The safety data sheet must comply with clause 1 of Schedule 7 unless regulation 331 applies. (3) The manufacturer or importer of the hazardous chemical must— (a) review the safety data sheet at least once every 5 years; and (b) amend the safety data sheet whenever necessary to ensure that it contains correct, current information. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The manufacturer or importer of the hazardous chemical must provide the current safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical to any person, if the person— (a) is likely to be affected by the hazardous chemical; and (b) asks for the safety data sheet. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) Subregulations (3) and (4) do not apply to a manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical who has not manufactured or imported the hazardous chemical in the past 5 years. 331—Safety data sheets—research chemical, waste product or sample for analysis (1) This regulation applies if— (a) a hazardous chemical is a research chemical, waste product or sample for analysis; and (b) it is not reasonably practicable for a manufacturer or importer of the hazardous chemical to comply with clause 1 of Schedule 7. (2) The manufacturer or importer must prepare a safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical that complies with clause 2 of Schedule 7. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 332—Emergency disclosure of chemical identities to registered medical practitioner (1) This regulation applies if a registered medical practitioner— (a) reasonably believes that knowing the chemical identity of an ingredient of a hazardous chemical may help to treat a patient; and (b) requests the manufacturer or importer of the hazardous chemical to give the registered medical practitioner the chemical identity of the ingredient; and (c) gives an undertaking to the manufacturer or importer that the chemical identity of the ingredient will be used only to help treat the patient; and (d) gives an undertaking to the manufacturer or importer to give the manufacturer or importer as soon as practicable a written statement about the need to obtain the chemical identity of the ingredient. (2) The manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical must give the registered medical practitioner the chemical identity of an ingredient of the hazardous chemical as soon as practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 333—Emergency disclosure of chemical identities to emergency service worker The manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical must give an emergency service worker the chemical identity of an ingredient of the hazardous chemical as soon as practicable after the worker requests it. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 334—Packing hazardous chemicals The manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical must ensure that the hazardous chemical is correctly packed, in accordance with Part 2 of Schedule 9, as soon as practicable after manufacturing or importing the hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 335—Labelling hazardous chemicals (1) The manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical must ensure that the hazardous chemical is correctly labelled as soon as practicable after manufacturing or importing the hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if— (a) the selection and use of label elements is in accordance with the GHS and it complies with Part 3 of Schedule 9; or (b) the label includes content that complies with another labelling requirement imposed by these regulations or by another law of this State or of the Commonwealth and the content is the same, or substantially the same, as the content that is required by Part 3 of Schedule 9. (3) This regulation does not apply to a hazardous chemical if— (a) the hazardous chemical is a consumer product that is labelled in accordance with the Poisons Standard; and (b) the container for the hazardous chemical has its original label; and (c) it is reasonably foreseeable that the hazardous chemical will be used in a workplace only in— (i) a quantity that is consistent with household use; and (ii) a way that is consistent with household use; and (iii) a way that is incidental to the nature of the work carried out by a worker using the hazardous chemical. (4) This regulation does not apply to hazardous chemicals in transit. (5) This regulation does not apply to a hazardous chemical that— (a) is therapeutic goods within the meaning of the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 of the Commonwealth; and (b) is in a form intended for human consumption, for administration to or by a person or use by a person for therapeutic purposes; and (c) is labelled in accordance with that Act or an order made under that Act. (6) This regulation does not apply to cosmetics and toiletries. (7) This regulation does not apply to a hazardous chemical that is— (a) a veterinary chemical product within the meaning of the Agvet Code; and (b) listed in— (i) the Poisons Standard, Part 4, Schedule 4, if the chemical product is packaged and supplied in a form intended for direct administration to an animal for therapeutic purposes; or (ii) the Poisons Standard, Part 4, Schedule 8. (8) In this regulation— Poisons Standard means the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons October 2016 published by the Commonwealth, as in force or remade from time to time. Subdivision 2—Obligations of suppliers Notes— 1 A supplier of hazardous chemicals may also be a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace. 2 A supplier is defined in section 25 of the Act as a person who conducts a business or undertaking of supplying. 3 An operator of a major hazard facility is required to notify certain quantities of hazardous chemicals under Chapter 9 Part 2. 336—Restriction on age of person who can supply hazardous chemicals A person conducting a business or undertaking must not direct or allow a worker to supply a hazardous chemical that is a flammable gas or flammable liquid to another person into any container or vehicle provided by that other person unless the worker is at least 16 years of age. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Examples— 1 Decanting fuel into a fuel container. 2 Refuelling a car. 337—Retailer or supplier packing hazardous chemicals (1) The supplier of a hazardous chemical must not supply the hazardous chemical for use at another workplace if the supplier knows or ought reasonably to know that the hazardous chemical is not correctly packed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) A retailer who supplies a hazardous chemical in a container provided by the person supplied with the chemical must ensure that the hazardous chemical is correctly packed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 338—Supplier labelling hazardous chemicals (1) The supplier of a hazardous chemical must not supply the hazardous chemical to another workplace if the supplier knows or ought reasonably to know that the hazardous chemical is not correctly labelled in accordance with regulation 335. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a hazardous chemical manufactured or imported before 1 January 2023 that was, at the time it was manufactured or imported, labelled in accordance with GHS 3. 339—Supplier to provide safety data sheets (1) The supplier of a hazardous chemical to a workplace must ensure that the current safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical is provided with the hazardous chemical— (a) when the hazardous chemical is first supplied to the workplace; and (b) if the safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical is amended—when the hazardous chemical is first supplied to the workplace after the safety data sheet is amended. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A hazardous chemical is taken to be first supplied to a workplace if the supply is the first supply of the hazardous chemical to the workplace for 5 years. (3) The supplier of a hazardous chemical to a workplace must ensure that the current safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical is provided to a person at the workplace if the person asks for the safety data sheet. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) This regulation does not apply to a supplier of a hazardous chemical if— (a) the hazardous chemical is a consumer product; or (b) the supplier is a retailer. Note— A manufacturer or importer is required to prepare a safety data sheet under regulation 330. 340—Supply of prohibited and restricted carcinogens (1) The supplier of a prohibited carcinogen referred to in an item in Schedule 10, table 10.1 must not supply the substance unless the person to be supplied with the substance gives the supplier evidence that— (a) the substance is to be used, handled or stored for genuine research or analysis; and (b) either— (i) the regulator has authorised the person to use, handle or store the substance under regulation 384; or (ii) the regulator has granted an exemption under Chapter 11 Part 2 to the person to use, handle or store the substance. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The supplier of a restricted carcinogen referred to in an item in Schedule 10, table 10.2, column 2 must not supply the substance for a use referred to in column 3 for the item unless the person to be supplied with the substance gives the supplier evidence that— (a) the regulator has authorised the person to use, handle or store the substance under regulation 383; or (b) the regulator has granted an exemption to the person under Chapter 11 Part 2 to use, handle or store the substance. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) A supplier under subregulation (1) or (2) must keep a record of— (a) the name of the person supplied; and (b) the name and quantity of the substance supplied. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (4) The supplier must keep the record for 5 years after the substance was last supplied to the person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Subdivision 3—Obligations of persons conducting businesses or undertakings 341—Labelling hazardous chemicals—general requirement (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that a hazardous chemical used, handled or stored at the workplace is correctly labelled in accordance with regulation 335. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a hazardous chemical if the chemical— (a) was manufactured before 1 January 2017 and is labelled in accordance with the National Code of Practice for the Labelling of Workplace Substances [NOHSC:2012(1994)] as in force at the time it was manufactured; or (b) in the case of an imported hazardous chemical—was imported before 1 January 2017 and is labelled in accordance with the National Code of Practice for the Labelling of Workplace Substances [NOHSC:2012(1994)] as in force at the time it was imported; or (c) was manufactured or imported before 1 January 2023 and was, at the time it was manufactured or imported, labelled in accordance with GHS 3. 342—Labelling hazardous chemicals—containers (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that a hazardous chemical is correctly labelled in accordance with regulation 335 if the hazardous chemical is— (a) manufactured at the workplace; or (b) transferred or decanted from its original container at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (1a) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a hazardous chemical— (a) manufactured, at the workplace, or transferred or decanted from its original container at the workplace, before 1 January 2017 that was, at the time it was manufactured, or transferred or decanted from its original container, labelled in accordance with the National Code of Practice for the Labelling of Workplace Substances [NOHSC:2012(1994)] as in force at that time; or (b) manufactured at the workplace before 1 January 2023 that was, at the time it was manufactured, labelled in accordance with GHS 3; or (c) transferred or decanted from its original container at the workplace that was— (i) manufactured or imported before 1 January 2023; and (ii) at the time it was manufactured or imported, labelled in accordance with GHS 3. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a container that stores a hazardous chemical is correctly labelled in accordance with regulation 335 while the container contains the hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2a) Subregulation (2) does not apply to a container— (a) that stores a hazardous chemical manufactured or, in the case of an imported hazardous chemical, imported before 1 January 2017 if the container is labelled in accordance with the National Code of Practice for the Labelling of Workplace Substances [NOHSC:2012(1994)] as in force at the time it was manufactured or imported (as the case requires); or (b) manufactured or imported before 1 January 2023 that was, at the time it was manufactured or imported, labelled in accordance with GHS 3. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that a container labelled for a hazardous chemical is used only for the use, handling or storage of the hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) This regulation does not apply to a container if— (a) the hazardous chemical in the container is used immediately after it is put in the container; and (b) the container is thoroughly cleaned immediately after the hazardous chemical is used, handled or stored so that the container is in the condition it would be in if it had never contained the hazardous chemical. 343—Labelling hazardous chemicals—pipe work A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a hazardous chemical in pipe work is identified by a label, sign or another way on or near the pipe work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 344—Person conducting business or undertaking to obtain and give access to safety data sheets (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must obtain the current safety data sheet for a hazardous chemical prepared in accordance with these regulations from the manufacturer, importer or supplier of the hazardous chemical in the following circumstances: (a) either— (i) not later than when the hazardous chemical is first supplied for use at the workplace; or (ii) if the person is not able to obtain the safety data sheet under subparagraph (i)—as soon as practicable after the hazardous chemical is first supplied to the workplace but before the hazardous chemical is used at the workplace; (b) if the safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical is amended either— (i) not later than when the hazardous chemical is first supplied to the workplace after the safety data sheet is amended; or (ii) if the person is not able to obtain the amended safety data sheet under subparagraph (i)—as soon as practicable after the hazardous chemical is first supplied to the workplace after the safety data sheet is amended and before the hazardous chemical supplied is used at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The hazardous chemical is taken to be first supplied to a workplace if the supply is the first supply of the hazardous chemical to the workplace for 5 years. (3) The person must ensure that the current safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical is readily accessible to— (a) a worker who is involved in using, handling or storing the hazardous chemical at the workplace; and (b) an emergency service worker, or anyone else, who is likely to be exposed to the hazardous chemical at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (4) Subregulations (1) and (3) do not apply to a hazardous chemical that— (a) is in transit; or (b) if the person conducting the business or undertaking at the workplace is a retailer is— (i) a consumer product; and (ii) intended for supply to other premises; or (c) is a consumer product and it is reasonably foreseeable that the hazardous chemical will be used at the workplace only in— (i) quantities that are consistent with household use; or (ii) a way that is consistent with household use; and (iii) a way that is incidental to the nature of the work carried out by a worker using the hazardous chemical. (5) In the circumstances referred to in subregulation (4), the person must ensure that sufficient information about the safe use, handling and storage of the hazardous chemical is readily accessible to— (a) a worker at the workplace; and (b) an emergency service worker, or anyone else, who is likely to be exposed to the hazardous chemical at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (6) The person must ensure that the current safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical is readily accessible to a person at the workplace if the person— (a) is likely to be affected by the hazardous chemical; and (b) asks for the safety data sheet. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 345—Changes to safety data sheets A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace may change a safety data sheet for a hazardous chemical only if— (a) the person— (i) is an importer or manufacturer of the hazardous chemical; and (ii) changes the safety data sheet in a way that is consistent with the duties of the importer or manufacturer under regulation 330; or (b) the change is only the attachment of a translation of the safety data sheet, and clearly states that the translation is not part of the original safety data sheet. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— The manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical must amend a safety data sheet as necessary to ensure the information is correct and current (see regulation 330(3)(b)). Division 3—Register and manifest of hazardous chemicals Subdivision 1—Hazardous chemicals register 346—Hazardous chemicals register (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that— (a) a register of hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored at the workplace is prepared and kept at the workplace; and (b) the register is maintained to ensure the information in the register is up to date. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The register must include— (a) a list of hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored; and (b) the current safety data sheet for each hazardous chemical listed. (3) The person must ensure that the register is readily accessible to— (a) a worker involved in using, handling or storing a hazardous chemical; and (b) anyone else who is likely to be affected by a hazardous chemical at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) This regulation does not apply to a hazardous chemical if— (a) the hazardous chemical is in transit, unless there is a significant or frequent presence of the hazardous chemical in transit at the workplace; or (b) the hazardous chemical is a consumer product and the person is not required to obtain a safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical under regulation 344. Note— See regulation 344(4). Subdivision 2—Manifest of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals Note— Regulation 361 requires an emergency plan to be prepared if the quantity of hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored at a workplace exceeds the manifest quantity for that hazardous chemical. 347—Manifest of hazardous chemicals (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must, if the quantity of a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored at the workplace exceeds the manifest quantity for the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals— (a) prepare a manifest of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals; and (b) amend the manifest as soon as practicable if— (i) the type or quantity of Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals that must be listed in the manifest changes; or (ii) there is a significant change in the information required to be recorded in the manifest. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A manifest of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals must comply with Schedule 12. (3) The person must keep the manifest— (a) in a place determined in agreement with a primary emergency service organisation; and (b) available for inspection under the Act; and (c) readily accessible to the emergency service organisation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 4—Placards 349—Outer warning placards—requirement to display (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that an outer warning placard is prominently displayed at the workplace if the total quantity of a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored at the workplace exceeds the placard quantity for the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) An outer warning placard must comply with Schedule 13. (3) This regulation does not apply to a workplace if— (a) the workplace is a retail outlet; and (b) the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals is used to refuel a vehicle, and is either— (i) a flammable gas; or (ii) a flammable liquid. 350—Placard—requirement to display (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that a placard is prominently displayed at the workplace if the total quantity of a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals stored at the workplace exceeds the placard quantity for the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A placard must comply with Schedule 13. (3) This regulation does not apply to a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals if— (a) the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals is in bulk in a container, including an IBC, that is intended for transport and a placard is displayed on the container in accordance with the ADG Code; or (b) the Schedule 11 hazardous chemical or group of Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals is a flammable liquid stored in an underground tank at a retail outlet and used to refuel a vehicle. Division 5—Control of risk—obligations of persons conducting businesses or undertakings Subdivision 1—General obligations relating to management of risk 351—Management of risks to health or safety (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety associated with using, handling, generating or storing a hazardous chemical at a workplace. Note— WHS Act—see section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) In managing risks the person must have regard to the following: (a) the hazardous properties of the hazardous chemical; (b) any potentially hazardous chemical or physical reaction between the hazardous chemical and another substance or mixture, including a substance that may be generated by the reaction; (c) the nature of the work to be carried out with the hazardous chemical; (d) any structure, plant or system of work— (i) that is used in the use, handling, generation or storage of the hazardous chemical; or (ii) that could interact with the hazardous chemical at the workplace. 352—Review of control measures In addition to the circumstances in regulation 38, a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that any measures implemented to control risks in relation to a hazardous chemical at the workplace are reviewed and as necessary revised in any of the following circumstances: (a) following any change to the safety data sheet for the hazardous chemical or the register of hazardous chemicals; (b) if the person obtains a health monitoring report for a worker under Division 6 that contains— (i) test results that indicate that the worker has been exposed to the hazardous chemical and has an elevated level of metabolites in his or her body for that hazardous chemical; or (ii) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the work using, handling, generating or storing the hazardous chemical that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; or (iii) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the work using, handling, generating or storing the hazardous chemical that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (c) if monitoring carried out under regulation 50 determines that the airborne concentration of the hazardous chemical at the workplace exceeds the relevant exposure standard; (d) at least once every 5 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 353—Safety signs (1) This regulation applies if a safety sign is required to control an identified risk in relation to using, handling, generating or storing hazardous chemicals at a workplace. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace must display a safety sign at the workplace to— (a) warn of a particular hazard associated with the hazardous chemicals; or (b) state the responsibilities of a particular person in relation to the hazardous chemicals. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure that the safety sign is— (a) located next to the hazard; and (b) clearly visible to a person approaching the hazard. (4) In this regulation— safety sign does not include a placard. 354—Identification of risk of physical or chemical reaction (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must identify any risk of a physical or chemical reaction in relation to a hazardous chemical used, handled, generated or stored at a workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the hazardous chemical undergoes the physical or chemical reaction in a manufacturing process or as part of a deliberate process or activity at the workplace. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must take all reasonable steps to ensure that a hazardous chemical is used, handled, generated or stored so as not to contaminate food, food packaging or personal use products. Examples— Personal use products— • cosmetics; • face washer. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) Subregulation (3) does not apply to the use of a hazardous chemical for agricultural purposes when used in accordance with the Agricultural and Veterinary Products (Control of Use) Act 2002. 355—Specific control—fire and explosion A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must, if there is a possibility of fire or explosion in a hazardous area being caused by an ignition source being introduced into the area, ensure that the ignition source is not introduced into the area (from outside or within the space). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 356—Keeping hazardous chemicals stable (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a hazardous chemical used, handled or stored at the workplace does not become unstable, decompose or change so as to— (a) create a hazard that is different from the hazard originally created by the hazardous chemical; or (b) significantly increase the risk associated with any hazard in relation to the hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that— (a) if the stability of a hazardous chemical used, handled or stored at the workplace is dependent on the maintenance of the proportions of the ingredients of the hazardous chemical—the proportions are maintained as stated in the safety data sheet for the chemical, or by the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical; and (b) if a hazardous chemical used, handled or stored at the workplace is known to be unstable above a particular temperature—the hazardous chemical is used, handled or stored at or below that temperature. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) This regulation does not apply if— (a) the hazardous chemical is changed or allowed to become unstable, without risk to health or safety, as part of a deliberate process or activity at the workplace; or (b) the hazardous chemical undergoes a chemical reaction in a manufacturing process or as part of a deliberate process or activity at the workplace. Subdivision 2—Spills and damage 357—Containing and managing spills (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that where there is a risk from a spill or leak of a hazardous chemical in a solid or liquid form, provision is made in each part of the workplace where the hazardous chemical is used, handled, generated or stored for a spill containment system that contains within the workplace any part of the hazardous chemical that spills or leaks, and any resulting effluent. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that the spill containment system does not create a hazard by bringing together different hazardous chemicals that are not compatible. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure that the spill containment system provides for the cleanup and disposal of a hazardous chemical that spills or leaks, and any resulting effluent. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) In subregulation (2)— compatible, for 2 or more substances, mixtures or items, means that the substances, mixtures or items do not react together to cause a fire, explosion, harmful reaction or evolution of flammable, toxic or corrosive vapour. 358—Protecting hazardous chemicals from damage A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that containers of hazardous chemicals and any associated pipe work or attachments are protected against damage caused by an impact or excessive loads. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Subdivision 3—Emergency plans and safety equipment 359—Fire protection and firefighting equipment (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure the following: (a) the workplace is provided with fire protection and firefighting equipment that is designed and built for the types of hazardous chemicals at the workplace in the quantities in which they are used, handled, generated or stored at the workplace, and the conditions under which they are used, handled, generated or stored, having regard to— (i) the fire load of the hazardous chemicals; and (ii) the fire load from other sources; and (iii) the compatibility of the hazardous chemicals with other substances and mixtures at the workplace; (b) the fire protection and firefighting equipment is compatible with firefighting equipment used by the primary emergency service organisations; (c) the fire protection and firefighting equipment is properly installed, tested and maintained; (d) a dated record is kept of the latest testing results and maintenance until the next test is conducted. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If a part of the fire protection and firefighting equipment provided at the workplace becomes unserviceable or inoperative, the person must ensure that— (a) the implications of the equipment being unserviceable or inoperative are assessed; and (b) for risks that were controlled by the equipment when functioning fully, alternative measures are taken to manage the risks. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must ensure that the fire protection and firefighting equipment is returned to full operation as soon as practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 360—Emergency equipment A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace that uses, handles, generates or stores hazardous chemicals must ensure that equipment is always available at the workplace for use in an emergency. Note— A person conducting a business or undertaking must comply with Division 4 of Chapter 3 Part 2. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 361—Emergency plans (1) This regulation applies if the quantity of a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical used, handled, generated or stored at a workplace exceeds the manifest quantity for that hazardous chemical. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace must give a copy of an emergency plan prepared under Division 4 of Chapter 3 Part 2 in relation to the workplace to a primary emergency service organisation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) If the primary emergency service organisation gives the person a written recommendation about the content or effectiveness of the emergency plan, the person must revise the plan in accordance with the recommendation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 362—Safety equipment (1) This regulation applies if safety equipment is required to control an identified risk in relation to using, handling, generating or storing hazardous chemicals at a workplace. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace must ensure that the safety equipment is provided, maintained and readily accessible to persons at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Subdivision 4—Storage and handling systems 363—Control of risks from storage or handling systems (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a system used at the workplace for the use, handling or storage of hazardous chemicals— (a) is used only for a purpose for which it was designed, manufactured, modified, supplied or installed; and (b) is operated, tested, maintained, installed, repaired and decommissioned having regard to the health and safety of workers and other persons at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that sufficient information, training and instruction is given to a person who operates, tests, maintains or decommissions a system used at a workplace for the use, handling or storage of hazardous chemicals for the activity to be carried out safely. Example— Information provided at a training course. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 364—Containers for hazardous chemicals used, handled or stored in bulk A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that a container in which a hazardous chemical is used, handled or stored in bulk and any associated pipe work or attachments— (a) have stable foundations and supports; and (b) are secured to the foundations and supports to prevent any movement between the container and the associated pipe work or attachments to prevent— (i) damage to the container, the associated pipe work or attachments; and (ii) a notifiable incident. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 365—Stopping use and disposing of handling systems (1) This regulation applies to a system used at a workplace for the use, handling or storage of hazardous chemicals if a person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace intends that the system no longer be used for the use, handling or storage of the hazardous chemicals or be disposed of. (2) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the system is free of the hazardous chemicals when the system stops being used for the use, handling or storage of the hazardous chemicals or is disposed of. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) If it is not reasonably practicable to remove the hazardous chemicals from the system, the person must correctly label the system. Note— For correctly labelling hazardous chemicals, see Subdivision 3 of Division 1. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 366—Stopping use of underground storage and handling systems (1) This regulation applies in relation to a system used at a workplace for the use, handling or storage of hazardous chemicals underground if a person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace intends that the system no longer be used for the use, handling or storage of the hazardous chemicals or be disposed of. (2) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the system is removed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) If it is not reasonably practicable to remove the system, the person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the system is without risks to health and safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 367—Notification of abandoned tank (1) This regulation applies to a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace if— (a) the person controls or manages a tank at the workplace that is underground, partially underground or fully mounded; and (b) the tank was used to store flammable gases or flammable liquids. (2) The tank is taken to be abandoned if— (a) the tank has not been used to store flammable gases or flammable liquids for 2 years; or (b) the person does not intend to use the tank to store flammable gases or flammable liquids again. (3) The person must notify the regulator of the abandonment of the tank as soon as practicable after the tank is abandoned. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) In this regulation— tank means a container, other than an IBC designed to use, handle or store hazardous chemicals in bulk, and includes fittings, closures and other equipment attached to the container. Division 6—Health monitoring 368—Duty to provide health monitoring A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring is provided to a worker carrying out work for the business or undertaking if— (a) the worker is carrying out ongoing work at a workplace using, handling, generating or storing hazardous chemicals and there is a significant risk to the worker's health because of exposure to a hazardous chemical referred to in Schedule 14, table 14.1, column 2; or (b) the person identifies that because of ongoing work carried out by a worker using, handling, generating or storing hazardous chemicals there is a significant risk that the worker will be exposed to a hazardous chemical (other than a hazardous chemical referred to in Schedule 14, table 14.1) and either— (i) valid techniques are available to detect the effect on the worker's health; or (ii) a valid way of determining biological exposure to the hazardous chemical is available and it is uncertain, on reasonable grounds, whether the exposure to the hazardous chemical has resulted in the biological exposure standard being exceeded. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— The biological exposure standard is published by Safe Work Australia. 369—Duty to inform of health monitoring A person conducting a business or undertaking who is required to provide health monitoring to a worker must give information about the health monitoring requirements to— (a) a person who is likely to be engaged to carry out work using, handling, generating or storing a hazardous chemical; and (b) a worker for the business or undertaking, before the worker commences work using, handling, generating or storing a hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 370—Duty to ensure that appropriate health monitoring is provided A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring of a worker referred to in regulation 368 includes health monitoring of a type referred to in an item in Schedule 14, table 14.1, column 3 in relation to a hazardous chemical referred to in column 2 for the item, unless— (a) an equal or better type of health monitoring is available; and (b) the use of that other type of monitoring is recommended by a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 371—Duty to ensure health monitoring is supervised by registered medical practitioner with experience (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that the health monitoring of a worker referred to in regulation 368 is carried out by or under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must consult the worker in relation to the selection of the registered medical practitioner. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 372—Duty to pay costs of health monitoring (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must pay all expenses relating to health monitoring referred to in regulation 368. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) If 2 or more persons conducting businesses or undertakings have a duty to provide health monitoring for a worker and have arranged for one of them to commission the health monitoring, the costs of the health monitoring for which any of those persons is liable must be apportioned equally between each of those persons unless they agree otherwise. 373—Information that must be provided to registered medical practitioner A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions health monitoring for a worker must provide the following information to the registered medical practitioner carrying out or supervising the health monitoring: (a) the name and address of the person conducting the business or undertaking; (b) the name and date of birth of the worker; (c) the work that the worker is, or will be, carrying out that has triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (d) if the worker has started that work, how long the worker has been carrying out that work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 374—Duty to obtain health monitoring report (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions health monitoring referred to in regulation 368 must take all reasonable steps to obtain a health monitoring report from the registered medical practitioner who carried out or supervised the monitoring as soon as practicable after the monitoring is carried out in relation to a worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The health monitoring report must include the following: (a) the name and date of birth of the worker; (b) the name and registration number of the registered medical practitioner; (c) the name and address of the person conducting the business or undertaking who commissioned the health monitoring; (d) the date of the health monitoring; (e) any test results that indicate whether or not the worker has been exposed to a hazardous chemical; (f) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (g) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the type of work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (h) whether medical counselling is required for the worker in relation to the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring. 375—Duty to give health monitoring report to worker The person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring for a worker must give a copy of the health monitoring report to the worker as soon as practicable after the person obtains the report. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 376—Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator A person conducting a business or undertaking for whom a worker is carrying out work for which health monitoring is required must give a copy of the health monitoring report relating to a worker to the regulator as soon as practicable after obtaining the report if the report contains— (a) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the work using, handling, generating or storing hazardous chemicals that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; or (b) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the work using, handling, generating or storing hazardous chemicals that triggered the requirement for health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 377—Duty to give health monitoring report to relevant persons conducting businesses or undertakings The person who commissioned health monitoring for a worker under regulation 368 must give a copy of the health monitoring report to all other persons conducting businesses or undertakings who have a duty to provide health monitoring for the worker as soon as practicable after obtaining the report. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 378—Health monitoring records (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring reports in relation to a worker carrying out work for the business or undertaking are kept as a confidential record— (a) identified as a record in relation to the worker; and (b) for at least 30 years after the record is made. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) The person must ensure that the health monitoring report and results of a worker are not disclosed to another person without the worker's written consent. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) Subregulation (2) does not apply if the record is disclosed under regulation 376 or 377 or to a person who must keep the record confidential under a duty of professional confidentiality. Division 7—Induction, information, training and supervision 379—Duty to provide supervision (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must provide any supervision to a worker that is necessary to protect the worker from risks to the worker's health and safety arising from the work if, at the workplace, the worker— (a) uses, handles, generates or stores a hazardous chemical; or (b) operates, tests, maintains, repairs or decommissions a storage or handling system for a hazardous chemical; or (c) is likely to be exposed to a hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that the supervision of the worker is suitable and adequate having regard to— (a) the nature of the risks associated with the hazardous chemical; and (b) the information training and instruction required under regulation 39. Note— In addition, section 19(3)(f) of the Act requires the provision of information, training, instruction and supervision. Division 8—Prohibition, authorisation and restricted use 380—Using, handling and storing prohibited carcinogens A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not use, handle or store, or direct or allow a worker at the workplace to use, handle or store, a prohibited carcinogen referred to in Schedule 10, table 10.1, column 2 unless— (a) the prohibited carcinogen is used, handled or stored for genuine research or analysis; and (b) the regulator has authorised the use, handling or storage of the prohibited carcinogen under regulation 384. Note— See section 43 of the Act. 381—Using, handling and storing restricted carcinogens A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not use, handle or store, or direct or allow a worker at the workplace to use, handle or store, a restricted carcinogen referred to in an item in Schedule 10, table 10.2, column 2 for a purpose referred to in column 3 for the item unless the regulator has authorised the use, handling or storage of the restricted carcinogen under regulation 384. Note— See section 43 of the Act. 382—Using, handling and storing restricted hazardous chemicals (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not use, handle or store, or direct or allow a worker at the workplace to use, handle or store, a restricted hazardous chemical referred to in an item in Schedule 10, table 10.3, column 2 for a purpose referred to in column 3 for the item. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must not use, handle or store, or direct or allow a worker at the workplace to use, handle or store, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) unless the use, handling or storage is— (a) in relation to existing electrical equipment or construction material; or (b) for disposal purposes; or (c) for genuine research and analysis. Note— See section 43 of the Act. 383—Application for authorisation to use, handle or store prohibited and restricted carcinogens (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace may apply in writing to the regulator for authorisation to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen referred to in Schedule 10 at the workplace. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the applicant's name and business address; (b) if the applicant conducts the business or undertaking under a business name, that business name; (c) the name and address of the supplier of the carcinogen; (d) the address where the carcinogen will be used, handled or stored; (e) the name of the carcinogen; (f) the quantity of the carcinogen to be used, handled or stored at the workplace each year; (g) the purpose and activity for which the carcinogen will be used, handled or stored; (h) the number of workers that may be exposed to the carcinogen; (i) how the person will manage risks to health and safety including a summary of the steps taken, or to be taken, by the person in relation to the following: (i) hazard identification; (ii) control measures; (iii) if elimination or substitution of the carcinogen is not reasonably practicable—why the elimination or substitution is not reasonably practicable; (j) any other information requested by the regulator. 384—Authorisation to use, handle or store prohibited carcinogens and restricted carcinogens (1) If a person applies under regulation 383, the regulator may grant an authorisation to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen under this regulation. (2) The regulator may authorise the person to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen referred to in an item in Schedule 10, table 10.1 at the workplace only if the carcinogen will be used, handled or stored only for genuine research or analysis. (3) The regulator may authorise the person to use, handle or store a restricted carcinogen referred to in an item in Schedule 10, table 10.2 at the workplace only if the carcinogen will be used, handled or stored only for a use referred to in column 3 for the item. (4) The regulator may impose any conditions on the authorisation that the regulator considers necessary to achieve the objectives of the Act or these regulations. (5) The regulator must refuse to authorise the use, handling or storage of the carcinogen for a use not referred to in this regulation. Note— A decision to refuse an authorisation is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 385—Changes to information in application to be reported A person who applies under regulation 383 for authorisation to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen must give the regulator written notice of any change in the information given in the application before the change or as soon as practicable after the person becomes aware of the change. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 386—Regulator may cancel authorisation The regulator may cancel an authorisation to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen given under regulation 384 if satisfied that— (a) the person granted the authorisation has not complied with a condition on the authorisation; or (b) the risk to the health or safety of a worker that may be affected by using, handling or storing the carcinogen has changed since the authorisation was granted. Note— A decision to cancel an authorisation is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 387—Statement of exposure to be given to workers (1) This regulation applies if— (a) a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace is authorised under regulation 384 to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen at the workplace; and (b) a worker uses, handles or stores the prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen at the workplace. (2) The person must give to the worker, at the end of the worker's engagement by the person, a written statement of the following: (a) the name of the prohibited or restricted carcinogen to which the worker may have been exposed during the engagement; (b) the time the worker may have been exposed; (c) how and where the worker may obtain records of the possible exposure; (d) whether the worker should undertake regular health assessments, and the relevant tests to undertake. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 388—Records to be kept (1) This regulation applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace is authorised under regulation 384 to use, handle or store a prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen at the workplace. (2) The person must— (a) record the full name, date of birth and address of each worker likely to be exposed to the prohibited carcinogen or restricted carcinogen during the period of authorisation; and (b) keep a copy of each authorisation given to the person including any conditions imposed on the authorisation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) The person must keep the records for 30 years after the authorisation ends. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Division 9—Pipelines 389—Management of risk by pipeline owner (1) The owner of a pipeline used to transfer hazardous chemicals must manage risks associated with the transfer of the hazardous chemicals through that pipeline. Example— Risks associated with the testing, installation, commissioning, operation, maintenance and decommissioning of the pipeline. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The owner of a pipeline used to transfer hazardous chemicals must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that an activity, structure, equipment or substance that is not part of the pipeline does not affect the hazardous chemicals or the pipeline in a way that increases risk. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 390—Pipeline builder's duties (1) This regulation applies to a person who intends to build a pipeline that will— (a) cross into a public place; and (b) be used to transfer a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical. (2) The person must ensure that, before the building of the pipeline commences, the regulator is given the following information: (a) the name of the pipeline's intended owner and operator; (b) the pipeline's specifications; (c) the intended procedures for the operation, maintenance, renewal and relaying of the pipeline; (d) any public place that the pipeline will cross; (e) the intended emergency response procedures. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) The person must ensure that the regulator is given the information in the following circumstances: (a) before the pipeline is commissioned; (b) before the pipeline is likely to contain a hazardous chemical; (c) if there is any change in the information given under subregulation (2)—when the information changes; (d) if part of the pipeline is to be repaired—before the pipeline is repaired; (e) if part of the pipeline is removed, decommissioned, closed or abandoned—when the removal, decommissioning, closure or abandonment occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 391—Management of risks to health and safety by pipeline operator (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace who is the operator of a pipeline (the operator) used to transfer hazardous chemicals must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety associated with the transfer of the hazardous chemicals through the pipeline. Note— WHS Act—section 19 (see regulation 9). (2) The operator of a pipeline used to transfer a hazardous chemical must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the hazardous chemical transferred is identified by a label, sign or another way on or near the pipeline. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The operator of a pipeline that transfers a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical into a public place must ensure that the regulator is notified of— (a) the supplier of the hazardous chemical; and (b) the receiver of the hazardous chemical; and (c) the correct classification of the hazardous chemical. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Part 2—Lead Note— In workplaces where lead processes are carried out, this Part applies in addition to Chapter 7 Part 1. Division 1—Lead process 392—Meaning of lead process In this Part, a lead process consists of any of the following carried out at a workplace: (a) work that exposes a person to lead dust or lead fumes arising from the manufacture or handling of dry lead compounds; (b) work in connection with the manufacture, assembly, handling or repair of, or parts of, batteries containing lead that involves the manipulation of dry lead compounds, or pasting or casting lead; (c) breaking up or dismantling batteries containing lead, or sorting, packing and handling plates or other parts containing lead that are removed or recovered from the batteries; (d) spraying molten lead metal or alloys containing more than 5% by weight of lead metal; (e) melting or casting lead alloys containing more than 5% by weight of lead metal in which the temperature of the molten material exceeds 450°C; (f) recovering lead from its ores, oxides or other compounds by thermal reduction process; (g) dry machine grinding, discing, buffing or cutting by power tools alloys containing more than 5% by weight of lead metal; (h) machine sanding or buffing surfaces coated with paint containing more than 1% by dry weight of lead; (i) a process by which electric arc, oxyacetylene, oxy gas, plasma arc or a flame is applied for welding, cutting or cleaning, to the surface of metal coated with lead or paint containing more than 1% by dry weight of lead metal; (j) radiator repairs that may cause exposure to lead dust or lead fumes; (k) fire assays if lead, lead compounds or lead alloys are used; (l) hand grinding and finishing lead or alloys containing more than 50% by dry weight of lead; (m) spray painting with lead paint containing more than 1% by dry weight of lead; (n) melting lead metal or alloys containing more than 50% by weight of lead metal if the exposed surface area of the molten material exceeds 0.1 square metre and the temperature of the molten material does not exceed 450°C; (o) using a power tool, including abrasive blasting and high pressure water jets, to remove a surface coated with paint containing more than 1% by dry weight of lead and handling waste containing lead resulting from the removal; (p) a process that exposes a person to lead dust or lead fumes arising from manufacturing or testing detonators or other explosives that contain lead; (q) a process that exposes a person to lead dust or lead fumes arising from firing weapons at an indoor firing range; (r) foundry processes involving— (i) melting or casting lead alloys containing more than 1% by weight of lead metal in which the temperature of the molten material exceeds 450°C; or (ii) dry machine grinding, discing, buffing or cutting by power tools lead alloys containing more than 1% by weight of lead metal; (s) a process decided by the regulator to be a lead process under regulation 393. 393—Regulator may decide lead process (1) The regulator may decide that a process to be carried out at a workplace is a lead process. (2) The regulator must not decide that the process is a lead process unless the regulator is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the process creates a risk to the health of a worker at the workplace having regard to blood lead levels of workers, or airborne lead levels, at the workplace. Note— A decision that a process is a lead process is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). (3) The regulator must, within 14 days after a decision is made under subregulation (1), give written notice of the decision to the person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace. 394—Meaning of lead risk work In this Part— lead risk work means work carried out in a lead process that is likely to cause the blood lead level of a worker carrying out the work to exceed— (a) for the period up to and including 30 June 2021— (i) in the case of a female of reproductive capacity—10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L); or (ii) in any other case—30μg/dL (1.45μmol/L); or (b) from 1 July 2021— (i) in the case of a female of reproductive capacity—5μg/dL (0.24μmol/L); or (ii) in any other case—20μg/dL (0.97μmol/L). 395—Duty to give information about health risks of lead process (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that carries out a lead process must give information about the lead process to— (a) a person who is likely to be engaged to carry out the lead process—before the person is engaged; and (b) a worker for the business or undertaking—before the worker commences the lead process. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If work is identified as lead risk work after a worker commences the work, the person conducting a business or undertaking must give information about the lead process to the worker as soon as practicable after it is identified as lead risk work and before health monitoring of the worker is provided under Division 4 of this Part. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The information that must be given is— (a) information about the health risks and toxic effects associated with exposure to lead; and (b) if the lead process involves lead risk work—the need for, and details of, health monitoring under Division 4 of this Part. Division 2—Control of risk 396—Containment of lead contamination A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that contamination by lead is confined to a lead process area at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 397—Cleaning methods (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a lead process area at the workplace is kept clean. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that the methods used to clean a lead process area— (a) do not create a risk to the health of persons in the immediate vicinity of the area; and (b) do not have the potential to spread the contamination of lead. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 398—Prohibition on eating, drinking and smoking (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must take all reasonable steps to ensure that a person does not eat, drink, chew gum, smoke or carry materials used for smoking in a lead process area at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must provide workers with an eating and drinking area that, so far as is reasonably practicable, cannot be contaminated with lead from a lead process. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 399—Provision of changing and washing facilities (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must provide and maintain in good working order changing rooms and washing, showering and toilet facilities at the workplace so as to— (a) minimise secondary lead exposure from contaminated clothing; and (b) minimise ingestion of lead; and (c) avoid the spread of lead contamination. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that workers at the workplace remove clothing and equipment that is or is likely to be contaminated with lead, and wash their hands and faces, before entering an eating or drinking area at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 400—Laundering, disposal and removal of personal protective equipment (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that personal protective equipment that is likely to be contaminated with lead dust— (a) is sealed in a container before being removed from the lead process area; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, is disposed of on the completion of the lead process work at a site equipped to accept lead‑contaminated equipment; and (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to dispose of the personal protective equipment that is clothing— (i) is laundered at a laundry, whether on‑site or off‑site, equipped to launder lead‑contaminated clothing; or (ii) if it is not practicable to launder the clothing, is kept in the sealed container until it is re‑used for lead process work; and (d) if it is not reasonably practicable to dispose of the personal protective equipment that is not clothing— (i) is decontaminated before it is removed from the lead process area; or (ii) if it is not practicable to decontaminate the equipment in the lead process area, is kept in the sealed container until it is re‑used for lead process work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Example— Work boots. (2) The person must ensure that a sealed container referred to in subregulation (1) is decontaminated before being removed from the lead process area. Note— Regulation 335 also requires the container to be labelled to indicate the presence of lead. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must take all reasonable steps to ensure that clothing contaminated with lead‑dust is not removed from the workplace unless it is to be— (a) laundered in accordance with this regulation; or (b) disposed of. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 401—Review of control measures (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that any measures implemented to control health risks from exposure to lead at the workplace are reviewed and, as necessary, revised in the following circumstances: (a) a worker is removed from carrying out lead risk work at the workplace under regulation 415; (b) the person obtains a health monitoring report for a worker under Division 4 that contains— (i) test results that indicate that the worker has reached or exceeded the relevant blood lead level for that worker under regulation 415; and (ii) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the lead risk work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; and (iii) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including a recommendation that the worker be removed from carrying out lead risk work at the workplace; (c) the control measure does not control the risk it was implemented to control so far as is reasonably practicable; Examples— 1 Results of any monitoring. 2 A notifiable incident occurs because of the risk. (d) before a change at the workplace that is likely to give rise to a new or different risk to health or safety that the measure may not effectively control; (e) a new relevant hazard or risk is identified; (f) the results of consultation by the person under the Act or these regulations indicate that a review is necessary; (g) a health and safety representative requests a review under subregulation (3); (h) the regulator requires the review; (i) at least once every 5 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1)(d), a change at the workplace includes— (a) a change to the workplace itself or any aspect of the work environment; or (b) a change to a system of work, a process or a procedure. (3) A health and safety representative for workers at a workplace may request a review of a control measure if the representative reasonably believes that— (a) a circumstance referred to in subregulation (1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e) or (f) affects or may affect the health and safety of a member of the work group represented by the health and safety representative; and (b) the duty holder has not adequately reviewed the control measure in response to the circumstance. Division 3—Lead risk work 402—Identifying lead risk work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must assess each lead process carried out by the business or undertaking at the workplace to determine if lead risk work is carried out in the process. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In assessing a lead process, the person must have regard to the following: (a) past biological monitoring results of workers; (b) airborne lead levels; (c) the form of lead used; (d) the tasks and processes required to be undertaken with lead; (e) the likely duration and frequency of exposure to lead; (f) possible routes of exposure to lead; (g) any information about incidents, illnesses or diseases in relation to the use of lead at the workplace. (3) In assessing a lead process, the person must not have regard to the effect of using personal protective equipment on the health and safety of workers at the workplace. (4) If a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace is unable to determine whether lead risk work is carried out in a lead process at the workplace, the process is taken to include lead risk work until the person determines that lead risk work is not carried out in the process. 403—Notification of lead risk work (1) Subject to subregulation (5), if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace determines that work at the workplace is lead risk work, the person must give the regulator written notice within 7 days that the work is lead risk work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) A notice under this regulation must state the kind of lead process being carried out that includes the lead risk work. (3) The person must— (a) keep a copy of the notice given to the regulator while the lead risk work is carried out at the workplace; and (b) ensure that a copy of the notice is readily accessible to a worker who is likely to be exposed to lead, and the worker's health and safety representative. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (4) Subregulation (5) applies to an emergency service organisation in relation to work carried out by an emergency service worker who, at the direction of the emergency service organisation, is— (a) rescuing a person; or (b) providing first aid to the person. (5) The emergency service organisation must give the notice under subregulation (1) as soon as practicable after determining that the work is lead risk work. 404—Changes to information in notification of lead risk work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must give the regulator written notice of any change in the information given in a notice under regulation 403 before the change or as soon as practicable after the person becomes aware of the change. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (2) The person must— (a) keep a copy of the notice given to the regulator while the lead risk work is carried out at the workplace; and (b) ensure that a copy of the notice is readily accessible to a worker who is likely to be exposed to lead, and the worker's health and safety representative. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Division 4—Health monitoring 405—Duty to provide health monitoring before first commencing lead risk work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that health monitoring is provided to a worker— (a) before the worker first commences lead risk work for the person; and (b) 1 month after the worker first commences lead risk work for the person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If work is identified as lead risk work after a worker commences the work, the person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring of the worker is provided— (a) as soon as practicable after the lead risk work is identified; and (b) 1 month after the first monitoring of the worker under paragraph (a). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 406—Duty to ensure that appropriate health monitoring is provided Subject to regulation 407, a person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring of a worker referred to in regulation 405 includes health monitoring of a type referred to in an item in Schedule 14, table 14.2 unless— (a) an equal or better type of health monitoring is available; and (b) the use of that other type of monitoring is recommended by a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 407—Frequency of biological monitoring (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must arrange for biological monitoring of each worker who carries out lead risk work for the person to be carried out at the following times: (a) for the period up to and including 30 June 2021— (i) in the case of females not of reproductive capacity and males— (A) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of less than 30μg/dL (1.45μmol/L)—6 months after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (B) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of 30μg/dL (1.45μmol/L) or more but less than 40μg/dL (1.93μmol/L)—3 months after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (C) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of 40μg/dL (1.93μmol/L) or more—6 weeks after the last biological monitoring of the worker; (ii) in the case of females of reproductive capacity— (A) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of less than 10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L)—3 months after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (B) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of 10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L) or more—6 weeks after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (b) from 1 July 2021— (i) in the case of females not of reproductive capacity and males— (A) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of less than 10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L)—6 months after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (B) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of 10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L) or more but less than 20μg/dL (0.97μmol/L)—3 months after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (C) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of 20μg/dL (0.97μmol/L) or more—6 weeks after the last biological monitoring of the worker; (ii) in the case of females of reproductive capacity— (A) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of less than 5μg/dL (0.24μmol/L)—3 months after the last biological monitoring of the worker; or (B) if the last monitoring shows a blood lead level of 5μg/dL (0.24μmol/L) or more but less than 10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L)—6 weeks after the last biological monitoring of the worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must increase the frequency of biological monitoring of a worker who carries out lead risk work if the worker carries out an activity that is likely to significantly change the nature or increase the duration or frequency of the worker's lead exposure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The regulator may determine a different frequency for biological monitoring of workers at a workplace, or a class of workers, carrying out lead risk work having regard to— (a) the nature of the work and the likely duration and frequency of the workers' lead exposure; and (b) the likelihood that the blood lead level of the workers will significantly increase. (4) The regulator must give a person conducting a business or undertaking written notice of a determination under subregulation (3) within 14 days after making the determination. (5) The person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace must arrange for biological monitoring to be carried out at the frequency stated in a determination notified to the person under subregulation (4). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— A determination of a different frequency for biological monitoring is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 408—Duty to ensure health monitoring is supervised by registered medical practitioner with relevant experience (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that the health monitoring of a worker referred to in this Division is carried out by or under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must consult the worker in relation to the selection of the registered medical practitioner. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 409—Duty to pay costs of health monitoring (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must pay all expenses relating to health monitoring referred to in this Division. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) If 2 or more persons conducting businesses or undertakings have a duty to provide health monitoring for a worker and have arranged for one of them to commission the health monitoring, the costs of the health monitoring for which any of those persons is liable must be apportioned equally between each of those persons unless they agree otherwise. 410—Information that must be provided to registered medical practitioner A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions health monitoring for a worker must provide the following information to the registered medical practitioner carrying out or supervising the health monitoring: (a) the name and address of the person conducting the business or undertaking; (b) the name and date of birth of the worker; (c) the lead risk work that the worker is, or will be, carrying out that has triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (d) if the worker has started that work, how long the worker has been carrying out that work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 411—Duty to obtain health monitoring report (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring referred to in this Division must take all reasonable steps to obtain a health monitoring report from the registered medical practitioner who carried out or supervised the monitoring as soon as practicable after the monitoring is carried out in relation to a worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The health monitoring report must include the following: (a) the name and date of birth of the worker; (b) the name and registration number of the registered medical practitioner; (c) the name and address of the person conducting the business or undertaking who commissioned the health monitoring; (d) the date of health monitoring; (e) if a blood sample is taken—the date the blood sample is taken; (f) the results of biological monitoring that indicate blood lead levels in the worker's body; (g) the name of the pathology service used to carry out tests; (h) any test results that indicate that the worker has reached or exceeded the relevant blood lead level for that worker under regulation 415; (i) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the lead risk work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (j) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the type of work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; Note— The duty under regulation 415 to remove a worker from carrying out lead risk work applies even if there is no recommendation of a registered medical practitioner to do so. (k) whether medical counselling is required for the worker in relation to the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring. 412—Duty to give health monitoring report to worker A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring for a worker must give a copy of the health monitoring report to the worker as soon as practicable after the person obtains the report. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 413—Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator A person conducting a business or undertaking for which a worker is carrying out work for which health monitoring is required must give a copy of the health monitoring report relating to the worker to the regulator as soon as practicable after obtaining the report if the report contains— (a) test results that indicate that the worker has reached or exceeded the relevant blood lead level for that person under regulation 415; or (b) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; or (c) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 414—Duty to give health monitoring report to relevant persons conducting businesses or undertakings A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring for a worker under this Division must give a copy of the health monitoring report to all other persons conducting businesses or undertakings who have a duty to provide health monitoring for the worker as soon as practicable after obtaining the report. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 415—Removal of worker from lead risk work (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking for which a worker is carrying out work must immediately remove the worker from carrying out lead risk work if following health monitoring— (a) biological monitoring of the worker shows that the worker's blood lead level is, or is more than— (i) for the period up to and including 30 June 2021— (A) in the case of females not of reproductive capacity and males—50μg/dL (2.42μmol/L); or (B) in the case of females of reproductive capacity—20μg/dL (0.97μmol/L); or (C) in the case of females who are pregnant or breastfeeding—15μg/dL (0.72μmol/L); or (ii) from 1 July 2021— (A) in the case of females not of reproductive capacity and males—30μg/dL (1.45μmol/L); or (B) in the case of females of reproductive capacity—10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L); or (b) the registered medical practitioner who supervised the health monitoring recommends that the worker be removed from carrying out the lead risk work; or (c) there is an indication that a risk control measure has failed and as a result, the worker's blood lead level is likely to reach the relevant level for the worker referred to in paragraph (a). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must notify the regulator as soon as practicable if a worker is removed from carrying out lead risk work under subregulation (1). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 416—Duty to ensure medical examination if worker removed from lead risk work (1) This regulation applies if a worker is removed from carrying out lead risk work under regulation 415. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking who removes the worker from carrying out lead risk work must arrange for the worker to be medically examined by a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring within 7 days after the day the worker is removed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must consult the worker in the selection of the registered medical practitioner. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 417—Return to lead risk work after removal (1) This regulation applies if— (a) a worker is removed from carrying out lead risk work under regulation 415; and (b) the person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace who removed the worker expects the worker to return to carrying out lead risk work at the workplace. (2) The person conducting the business or undertaking must arrange for health monitoring under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring at a frequency decided by the practitioner to determine whether the worker's blood lead level is low enough for the worker to return to carrying out lead risk work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that the worker does not return to carrying out lead risk work until— (a) the worker's blood lead level is less than— (i) for the period up to and including 30 June 2021— (A) in the case of females not of reproductive capacity and males—40μg/dL (1.93μmol/L); or (B) in the case of females of reproductive capacity—10μg/dL (0.48μmol/L); or (ii) from 1 July 2021— (A) in the case of females not of reproductive capacity and males—20μg/dL (0.97μmol/L); or (B) in the case of females of reproductive capacity—5μg/dL (0.24μmol/L); and (b) a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring is satisfied that the worker is fit to return to carrying out lead risk work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 418—Health monitoring records (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring reports in relation to a worker carrying out work for the business or undertaking are kept as a confidential record— (a) identified as a record in relation to the worker; and (b) for at least 30 years after the record is made. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) The person must ensure that the health monitoring report and results of a worker are not disclosed to another person without the worker's written consent. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) Subregulation (2) does not apply if the record is disclosed under regulation 412, 413 or 414 or to a person who must keep the record confidential under a duty of professional confidentiality. Chapter 8—Asbestos Part 1—Prohibitions and authorised conduct 419—Work involving asbestos or ACM—prohibitions and exceptions (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must not carry out, or direct or allow a worker to carry out, work involving asbestos. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In this regulation, work involves asbestos if the work involves manufacturing, supplying, transporting, storing, removing, using, installing, handling, treating, disposing of or disturbing asbestos or ACM. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the work involving asbestos is any of the following: (a) genuine research and analysis; (b) sampling and identification in accordance with these regulations; (c) maintenance of, or service work on, non‑friable asbestos or ACM, fixed or installed before 31 December 2003, in accordance with these regulations; (d) removal or disposal of asbestos or ACM, including demolition, in accordance with these regulations; (e) the transport and disposal of asbestos or asbestos waste in accordance with the Environment Protection Act 1993; (f) demonstrations, education or practical training in relation to asbestos or ACM; (g) display, or preparation or maintenance for display, of an artefact or thing that is, or includes, asbestos or ACM; (h) management in accordance with these regulations of in situ asbestos that was installed or fixed before 31 December 2003; (i) work that disturbs asbestos during mining operations that involve the extraction of, or exploration for, a mineral other than asbestos; (j) laundering asbestos contaminated clothing in accordance with these regulations. (4) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the regulator approves the method adopted for managing risk associated with asbestos. (5) Subregulation (1) does not apply to the following: (a) soil that a competent person has determined— (i) does not contain any visible ACM or friable asbestos; or (ii) if friable asbestos is visible, does not contain more than trace levels of asbestos determined in accordance with AS 4964:2004 (Method for the qualitative identification of asbestos in bulk samples); (b) naturally occurring asbestos managed in accordance with an asbestos management plan prepared under regulation 432. Part 2—General duty 420—Exposure to airborne asbestos at workplace (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that— (a) exposure of a person at the workplace to airborne asbestos is eliminated so far as is reasonably practicable; and (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate exposure to airborne asbestos— exposure is minimised so far as is reasonably practicable. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that the exposure standard for asbestos is not exceeded at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) Subregulations (1)(a) and (2) do not apply in relation to an asbestos removal area— (a) that is enclosed to prevent the release of respirable asbestos fibres in accordance with regulation 477; and (b) in which negative pressure is used in accordance with that regulation. Part 3—Management of asbestos and associated risks 421—Application of Chapter 8 Part 3 (1) This Part does not apply to naturally occurring asbestos. (2) Regulations 425, 426, 427, 428, 429 and 430 do not apply to any part of residential premises that is used only for residential purposes. 422—Asbestos to be identified or assumed at workplace (1) A person with management or control of a workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that all asbestos or ACM at the workplace is identified by a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A person with management or control of a workplace must— (a) if material at the workplace cannot be identified but a competent person reasonably believes that the material is asbestos or ACM—assume that the material is asbestos; and (b) if part of the workplace is inaccessible to workers and likely to contain asbestos or ACM—assume that asbestos is present in the part of the workplace. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the person— (a) assumes that asbestos or ACM is present; or (b) has reasonable grounds to believe that asbestos or ACM is not present. (4) If asbestos or ACM is assumed to be present at a workplace, it is taken to be identified at the workplace. 423—Analysis of sample (1) A person with management or control of a workplace may identify asbestos or ACM by arranging for a sample of material at the workplace to be analysed for the presence of asbestos or ACM. (2) If a person with management or control of a workplace arranges for an analysis, the person must ensure that the sample is analysed only by— (a) a NATA‑accredited laboratory accredited for the relevant test method; or (b) a laboratory approved by the regulator in accordance with guidelines published by Safe Work Australia; or (c) a laboratory operated by the regulator. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 424—Presence and location of asbestos to be indicated A person with management or control of a workplace must ensure that— (a) the presence and location of asbestos or ACM identified at the workplace under regulation 422 is clearly indicated; and (b) if it is reasonably practicable to do so, indicate the presence and location of the asbestos or ACM by a label. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 425—Asbestos register (1) A person with management or control of a workplace must ensure that a register (an asbestos register) is prepared and kept at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) The person must ensure that the asbestos register is maintained to ensure the information in the register is up to date. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) The asbestos register must— (a) record any asbestos or ACM identified at the workplace under regulation 422, or likely to be present at the workplace from time to time including— (i) the date on which the asbestos or ACM was identified; and (ii) the location, type and condition of the asbestos or ACM; or (b) state that no asbestos or ACM is identified at the workplace if the person knows that no asbestos or ACM is identified, or is likely to be present from time to time, at the workplace. (4) The person is not required to prepare an asbestos register for a workplace if a register has already been prepared for that workplace. (5) Subject to subregulation (6), this regulation applies to buildings whenever constructed. (6) This regulation does not apply to a workplace if— (a) the workplace is a building that was constructed after 31 December 2003; and (b) no asbestos has been identified at the workplace; and (c) no asbestos is likely to be present at the workplace from time to time. 426—Review of asbestos register A person with management or control of a workplace where an asbestos register is kept must ensure that the register is reviewed and as necessary revised if— (a) the asbestos management plan is reviewed under regulation 430; or (b) further asbestos or ACM is identified at the workplace; or (c) asbestos is removed from, or disturbed, sealed or enclosed at, the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 427—Access to asbestos register (1) A person with management or control of a workplace where an asbestos register is kept must ensure that the asbestos register is readily accessible to— (a) a worker who has carried out, carries out or intends to carry out, work at the workplace; and (b) a health and safety representative who represents a worker referred to in paragraph (a); and (c) a person conducting a business or undertaking who has carried out, carries out or intends to carry out, work at the workplace; and (d) a person conducting a business or undertaking who has required, requires, or intends to require work to be carried out at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) If a person conducting a business or undertaking carries out, or intends to carry out, work at a workplace that involves a risk of exposure to airborne asbestos, the person with management or control of the workplace must ensure that the person is given a copy of the asbestos register. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 428—Transfer of asbestos register by person relinquishing management or control If a person with management or control of a workplace plans to relinquish management or control of the workplace, the person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the asbestos register is given to the person, if any, assuming management or control of the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 429—Asbestos management plan (1) This regulation applies if asbestos or ACM is— (a) identified at a workplace under regulation 422; or (b) likely to be present at a workplace from time to time. (2) A person with management or control of the workplace must ensure that a written plan (an asbestos management plan) for the workplace is prepared. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) A person with management or control of the workplace must ensure that the asbestos management plan is maintained to ensure the information in the plan is up to date. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) An asbestos management plan must include information about the following: (a) the identification of asbestos or ACM; Example— A reference or link to the asbestos register for the workplace and signage and labelling. (b) decisions, and reasons for decisions, about the management of asbestos at the workplace; Example— Safe work procedures and control measures. (c) procedures for detailing incidents or emergencies involving asbestos or ACM at the workplace; (d) workers carrying out work involving asbestos. Example— Consultation, responsibilities, information and training. (5) A person with management or control of a workplace must ensure that a copy of the asbestos management plan for the workplace is readily accessible to— (a) a worker who has carried out, carries out or intends to carry out, work at the workplace; and (b) a health and safety representative who represents a worker referred to in paragraph (a); and (c) a person conducting a business or undertaking who has carried out, carries out or intends to carry out, work at the workplace; and (d) a person conducting a business or undertaking who has required, requires, or intends to require work to be carried out at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 430—Review of asbestos management plan (1) A person with management or control of a workplace that has an asbestos management plan must ensure that the plan is reviewed and as necessary revised in the following circumstances: (a) there is a review of the asbestos register or a control measure; (b) asbestos is removed from, or disturbed, sealed or enclosed at, the workplace; (c) the plan is no longer adequate for managing asbestos or ACM at the workplace; (d) a health and safety representative requests a review under subregulation (2); (e) at least once every 5 years. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) A health and safety representative for workers at a workplace may request a review of an asbestos management plan if the representative reasonably believes that— (a) a circumstance referred to in subregulation (1)(a), (b) or (c) affects or may affect the health and safety of a member of the work group represented by the health and safety representative; and (b) the person with management and control of the workplace has not adequately reviewed the asbestos management plan in response to the circumstance. Part 4—Management of naturally occurring asbestos 431—Naturally occurring asbestos The person with management or control of a workplace must manage, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1, risks to health and safety associated with naturally occurring asbestos at the workplace. Note— WHS Act—section 20 (see regulation 9). 432—Asbestos management plan (1) This regulation applies if naturally occurring asbestos is— (a) identified at a workplace; or (b) likely to be present at a workplace. (2) A person with management or control of the workplace must ensure that a written plan (an asbestos management plan) for the workplace is prepared in relation to the naturally occurring asbestos. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) A person with management or control of the workplace must ensure that the asbestos management plan is maintained to ensure the information in the plan is up to date. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) An asbestos management plan must include information about the following: (a) the identification of naturally occurring asbestos; (b) decisions, and reasons for decisions, about the management of naturally occurring asbestos at the workplace; Example— Safe work procedures and control measures. (c) procedures for detailing incidents or emergencies involving naturally occurring asbestos at the workplace; (d) workers carrying out work involving naturally occurring asbestos. Example— Consultation, responsibilities, information and training. (5) A person with management or control of a workplace must ensure that a copy of the asbestos management plan for naturally occurring asbestos at the workplace is readily accessible to— (a) a worker who has carried out, carries out or intends to carry out, work at the workplace; and (b) a health and safety representative who represents a worker referred to in paragraph (a); and (c) a person conducting a business or undertaking who has carried out, carries out or intends to carry out, work at the workplace; and (d) a person conducting a business or undertaking who has required, requires, or intends to require work to be carried out at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 433—Review of asbestos management plan A person with management or control of a workplace that has an asbestos management plan for naturally occurring asbestos must ensure that the plan is reviewed and as necessary revised if the plan is no longer adequate for managing naturally occurring asbestos at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Example— A control measure is revised under regulation 38. 434—Training in relation to naturally occurring asbestos A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that the training required under regulation 445 includes training in the hazards and risks associated with naturally occurring asbestos for workers who carry out work where naturally occurring asbestos is likely to be found. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. Part 5—Asbestos at the workplace Division 1—Health monitoring 435—Duty to provide health monitoring (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring is provided, in accordance with regulation 436, to a worker carrying out work for the business or undertaking if the worker is— (a) carrying out licensed asbestos removal work at a workplace and is at risk of exposure to asbestos when carrying out the work; or (b) is carrying out other ongoing asbestos removal work or asbestos‑related work and is at risk of exposure to asbestos when carrying out the work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(a), the person must ensure that the health monitoring of the worker commences before the worker carries out licensed asbestos removal work. (3) The person must ensure that the worker is informed of any health monitoring requirements before the worker carries out any work that may expose the worker to asbestos. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 436—Duty to ensure that appropriate health monitoring is provided A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that the health monitoring of a worker referred to in regulation 435 includes— (a) consideration of— (i) the worker's demographic, medical and occupational history; and (ii) records of the worker's personal exposure; and (b) a physical examination of the worker, unless another type of health monitoring is recommended by a registered medical practitioner. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 437—Duty to ensure health monitoring is supervised by registered medical practitioner with relevant experience (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that the health monitoring of a worker referred to in regulation 435 is carried out by or under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must consult the worker in relation to the selection of the registered medical practitioner. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 438—Duty to pay costs of health monitoring (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must pay all expenses relating to health monitoring referred to in regulation 435. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) If 2 or more persons conducting businesses or undertakings have a duty to provide health monitoring for a worker and have arranged for one of them to commission the health monitoring, the costs of the health monitoring for which any of those persons is liable must be apportioned equally between each of those persons unless they agree otherwise. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 439—Information that must be provided to registered medical practitioner A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions health monitoring for a worker must provide the following information to the registered medical practitioner carrying out or supervising the health monitoring: (a) the name and address of the person conducting the business or undertaking; (b) the name and date of birth of the worker; (c) the work that the worker is, or will be, carrying out that has triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (d) if the worker has started that work, how long the worker has been carrying out that work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 440—Duty to obtain health monitoring report (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring referred to in regulation 435 must take all reasonable steps to obtain a health monitoring report from the registered medical practitioner who carried out or supervised the monitoring as soon as practicable after the monitoring is carried out in relation to a worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The health monitoring report must include the following: (a) the name and date of birth of the worker; (b) the name and registration number of the registered medical practitioner; (c) the name and address of the person conducting the business or undertaking who commissioned the health monitoring; (d) the date of health monitoring; (e) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (f) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the type of work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (g) whether medical counselling is required for the worker in relation to the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring. 441—Duty to give health monitoring report to worker A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring for a worker must give a copy of the health monitoring report to the worker as soon as practicable after the person obtains the report. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 442—Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator A person conducting a business or undertaking for which a worker is carrying out work for which health monitoring is required must give a copy of the health monitoring report relating to a worker to the regulator as soon as practicable after obtaining the report if the report contains— (a) any advice that test results indicate that the worker may have contracted a disease, injury or illness as a result of carrying out the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; or (b) any recommendation that the person conducting the business or undertaking take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the work referred to in regulation 435. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 443—Duty to give health monitoring report to relevant persons conducting businesses or undertakings A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned health monitoring for a worker must give a copy of the health monitoring report to all other persons conducting businesses or undertakings who have a duty to provide health monitoring for the worker as soon as practicable after obtaining the report. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 444—Health monitoring records (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that health monitoring reports in relation to a worker carrying out work for the business or undertaking are kept as a confidential record— (a) identified as a record in relation to the worker; and (b) for at least 40 years after the record is made. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) The person must ensure that the health monitoring report and results of a worker are not disclosed to another person without the worker's written consent. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (3) Subregulation (2) does not apply if the record is disclosed under regulation 442 or 443 or to a person who must keep the record confidential under a duty of professional confidentiality. Division 2—Training 445—Duty to train workers about asbestos (1) In addition to the training required by Division 1 of Chapter 3 Part 2, a person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that workers engaged by the person, whom the person reasonably believes may be involved in asbestos removal work or in the carrying out of asbestos‑related work, are trained in the identification and safe handling of, and suitable control measures for, asbestos and ACM. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) This regulation does not apply in relation to a worker referred to in regulation 460. (3) The person must ensure that a record is kept of the training undertaken by the worker— (a) while the worker is carrying out the work; and (b) for 5 years after the day the worker ceases working for the person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (4) The person must keep the record available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Division 3—Control on use of certain equipment 446—Duty to limit use of equipment (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must not use, or direct or allow a worker to use, either of the following on asbestos or ACM: (a) high-pressure water spray; (b) compressed air. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) Subregulation (1)(a) does not apply to the use of a high pressure water spray for fire fighting or fire protection purposes. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking must not use, or direct or allow a worker to use, any of the following equipment on asbestos or ACM unless the use of the equipment is controlled: (a) power tools; (b) brooms; (c) any other implements that cause the release of airborne asbestos into the atmosphere. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (4) In subregulation (3), the use of equipment is controlled if— (a) the equipment is enclosed during its use; or (b) the equipment is designed to capture or suppress airborne asbestos and is used in accordance with its design; or (c) the equipment is used in a way that is designed to capture or suppress airborne asbestos safely; or (d) any combination of paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) applies. Part 6—Demolition and refurbishment 447—Application—Chapter 8 Part 6 (1) This Part applies to the demolition or refurbishment of a structure or plant constructed or installed before 31 December 2003. (2) In this regulation— demolition or refurbishment does not include minor or routine maintenance work, or other minor work. 448—Review of asbestos register The person with management or control of a workplace must ensure that, before demolition or refurbishment is carried out at the workplace, the asbestos register for the workplace is— (a) reviewed; and (b) if the register is inadequate having regard to the proposed demolition or refurbishment—revised. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Example— The register identifies an inaccessible area that is likely to contain asbestos and the area is likely to be accessible because of demolition. 449—Duty to give asbestos register to person conducting business or undertaking of demolition or refurbishment The person with management or control of a workplace must ensure that the person conducting a business or undertaking who carries out the demolition or refurbishment is given a copy of the asbestos register before the demolition or refurbishment is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 450—Duty to obtain asbestos register A person conducting a business or undertaking who carries out demolition or refurbishment at a workplace must obtain a copy of the asbestos register from the person with management or control of the workplace, before the person commences the demolition or refurbishment. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. 451—Determining presence of asbestos or ACM (1) This regulation applies if— (a) demolition or refurbishment is to be carried out at a workplace; and (b) there is no asbestos register for the structure or plant to be demolished or refurbished at the workplace. (2) The person conducting a business or undertaking who is to carry out the demolition or refurbishment must not carry out the demolition or refurbishment until the structure or plant has been inspected to determine whether asbestos or ACM is fixed to or installed in the structure or plant. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person conducting a business or undertaking who is to carry out the demolition or refurbishment must ensure that the determination is undertaken by a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The person conducting a business or undertaking who is to carry out the demolition or refurbishment must assume that asbestos or ACM is fixed to or installed in the structure or plant if— (a) the competent person is, on reasonable grounds, uncertain whether or not asbestos is fixed to or installed in the structure or plant; or (b) part of the structure or plant is inaccessible and likely to be disturbed. (5) If asbestos or ACM is determined or assumed to be fixed to or installed in the structure or plant, the person conducting a business or undertaking who is to carry out the demolition or refurbishment must inform— (a) if the workplace is residential premises— (i) the occupier of the premises; and (ii) the owner of the premises; and (b) in any other case—the person with management or control of the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 452—Identification and removal of asbestos before demolition (1) This regulation applies if a structure or plant at a workplace is to be demolished. (2) This regulation does not apply— (a) in an emergency to which regulation 454 applies; or (b) to residential premises. (3) The person with management or control of the workplace, or of the structure or plant, must ensure— (a) that all asbestos that is likely to be disturbed by the demolition is identified; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, that the asbestos is removed before the demolition is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) Subregulation (3)(b) does not apply if the purpose of the demolition is to gain access to the asbestos. 453—Identification and removal of asbestos before demolition of residential premises (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that is to carry out the demolition of residential premises must ensure— (a) that all asbestos that is likely to be disturbed by the demolition is identified; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, that the asbestos is removed before the demolition is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) This regulation does not apply in an emergency to which regulation 455 applies. (3) Subregulation (1)(b) does not apply if the purpose of the demolition is to gain access to the asbestos. 454—Emergency procedure (1) This regulation applies if— (a) an emergency occurs at a workplace other than residential premises; and (b) a structure or plant at the workplace must be demolished; and (c) asbestos is fixed to or installed in the structure or plant before the emergency occurs. (2) The person with management or control of the workplace must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that— (a) before the demolition is commenced, a procedure is developed that will, so far as is reasonably practicable, reduce the risk of exposure of workers and persons in the vicinity of the demolition site to asbestos to below the exposure standard; and (b) the asbestos register for the workplace is considered in the development of the procedure. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) The person must ensure that the regulator is given written notice about the emergency— (a) immediately after the person becomes aware of the emergency; and (b) before the demolition is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (4) For the purposes of this regulation, an emergency occurs if— (a) a structure or plant is structurally unsound; or (b) collapse of the structure or plant is imminent. 455—Emergency procedure—residential premises (1) This regulation applies if— (a) an emergency occurs at residential premises; and (b) a structure or plant at the premises must be demolished; and (c) asbestos is fixed to or installed in the structure or plant before the emergency occurs. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking who is to carry out the demolition of the residential premises must ensure so far as is reasonably practicable, that, before the demolition is commenced, a procedure is developed that will, so far as is reasonably practicable, reduce the risk of exposure of workers and persons in the vicinity of the demolition site to asbestos to below the exposure standard. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) The person must ensure that the regulator is given written notice about the emergency— (a) immediately after the person becomes aware of the emergency; and (b) before the demolition is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (4) For the purposes of this regulation, an emergency occurs if— (a) a structure or plant is structurally unsound; or (b) collapse of the structure or plant is imminent. 456—Identification and removal of asbestos before refurbishment (1) This regulation applies if a structure or plant at a workplace is to be refurbished. (2) This regulation does not apply to residential premises. (3) The person with management or control of the workplace, or of the structure or plant, must ensure— (a) that all asbestos that is likely to be disturbed by the refurbishment is identified; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, that the asbestos is removed before the refurbishment is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 457—Refurbishment of residential premises A person conducting a business or undertaking who is to carry out refurbishment of residential premises must ensure— (a) that all asbestos that is likely to be disturbed by the refurbishment is identified; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, that the asbestos is removed before the refurbishment is commenced. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Part 7—Asbestos removal work Note— In this Part some duties are placed on licensed asbestos removalists and some on asbestos removalists generally. 458—Duty to ensure asbestos removalist is licensed (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking that commissions the removal of asbestos must ensure that the asbestos removal work is carried out by a licensed asbestos removalist who is licensed to carry out the work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the asbestos to be removed is— (a) 10 square metres or less of non‑friable asbestos or ACD associated with the removal of that amount of non‑friable asbestos; or (b) ACD that is not associated with the removal of friable or non‑friable asbestos and is only a minor contamination. (3) If subregulation (2) applies, the person conducting the business or undertaking that commissions the asbestos removal work must ensure that the work is carried out by a competent person who has been trained in accordance with regulation 445. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 459—Asbestos removal supervisor must be present or readily available A licensed asbestos removalist must ensure that the nominated asbestos removal supervisor for asbestos removal work is— (a) if the asbestos removal work requires a Class A asbestos removal licence—present at the asbestos removal area whenever the asbestos removal work is being carried out; and (b) if the asbestos removal work requires a Class B asbestos removal licence—readily available to a worker carrying out asbestos removal work whenever the work is being carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 460—Asbestos removal worker must be trained (1) A licensed asbestos removalist must not direct or allow a worker to carry out licensed asbestos removal work unless the removalist is satisfied that the worker holds a certification in relation to the specified VET course for asbestos removal relevant to the class of licensed asbestos removal work to be carried out by the worker. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A licensed asbestos removalist must provide appropriate training to a worker carrying out licensed asbestos removal work at a workplace to ensure that the work is carried out in accordance with the asbestos removal control plan for the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In this regulation— appropriate training means training designed specifically for the workplace where the licensed asbestos removal work is carried out and the work to be carried out at the workplace. Note— Unless this regulation applies, the obligation to provide training to workers carrying out unlicensed asbestos removal work is set out in regulation 445. 461—Licensed asbestos removalist must keep training records (1) A licensed asbestos removalist must keep a record of the training undertaken by a worker carrying out licensed asbestos removal work— (a) while the worker is carrying out licensed asbestos removal work; and (b) for 5 years after the day the worker stopped carrying out licensed asbestos removal work for the removalist. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) The licensed asbestos removalist must ensure that the training record is readily accessible at the asbestos removal area and available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 462—Duty to give information about health risks of licensed asbestos removal work A licensed asbestos removalist must give the following information to a person likely to be engaged to carry out licensed asbestos removal work before the person is engaged to carry out the work: (a) the health risks and health effects associated with exposure to asbestos; (b) the need for, and details of, health monitoring of a worker carrying out licensed asbestos removal work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 463—Asbestos removalist must obtain register (1) A licensed asbestos removalist must obtain a copy of the asbestos register for a workplace before the removalist carries out asbestos removal work at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the asbestos removal work is to be carried out at residential premises. 464—Asbestos removal control plan (1) A licensed asbestos removalist must prepare an asbestos removal control plan for any licensed asbestos removal work the removalist is commissioned to undertake. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) An asbestos removal control plan must include— (a) details of how the asbestos removal will be carried out, including the method to be used and the tools, equipment and personal protective equipment to be used; and (b) details of the asbestos to be removed, including the location, type and condition of the asbestos. (3) The licensed asbestos removalist must give a copy of the asbestos removal control plan to the person who commissioned the licensed asbestos removal work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 465—Asbestos removal control plan to be kept and available (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a licensed asbestos removalist must ensure that a copy of the asbestos removal control plan prepared under regulation 464 is kept until the asbestos removal work to which it relates is completed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) If a notifiable incident occurs in connection with the asbestos removal work to which the asbestos removal control plan relates, the licensed asbestos removalist must keep the asbestos removal control plan for at least 2 years after the incident occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (3) The licensed asbestos removalist must ensure that for the period for which the asbestos removal control plan must be kept under this regulation, a copy is— (a) readily accessible to— (i) a person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace; and (ii) the person's workers at the workplace, or a health and safety representative who represents the workers; and (iii) if the asbestos removal work is to be carried out in residential premises—the occupants of the premises; and (b) available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 466—Regulator must be notified of asbestos removal (1) A licensed asbestos removalist must give written notice to the regulator at least 5 days before the removalist commences licensed asbestos removal work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) Despite subregulation (1), licensed asbestos removal work may be commenced immediately if there is— (a) a sudden and unexpected event, including a failure of equipment, that may cause persons to be exposed to respirable asbestos fibres; or (b) an unexpected breakdown of an essential service that requires immediate rectification to enable the service to continue. (3) If the asbestos must be removed immediately, the licensed asbestos removalist must give notice to the regulator— (a) immediately by telephone; and (b) in writing within 24 hours after notice is given under paragraph (a). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (4) A notice under subregulation (1) or (3) must include the following: (a) the following in relation to the licensed asbestos removalist: (i) name; (ii) registered business name; (iii) Australian Business Number; (iv) licence number; (v) business contact details; (b) the name and business contact details of the supervisor of the licensed asbestos removal work; (c) the name of the competent person or licensed asbestos assessor engaged to carry out a clearance inspection and issue a clearance certificate for the work; (d) the name and contact details of the person for whom the work is to be carried out; (e) the following in relation to the workplace where the asbestos is to be removed: (i) the name, including the registered business or company name, of the person with management or control of the workplace; (ii) the address and, if the workplace is large, the specific location of the asbestos removal; (iii) the kind of workplace; (f) the date of the notice; (g) the date when the asbestos removal work is to commence and the estimated duration of the work; (h) whether the asbestos to be removed is friable or non‑friable; (i) if the asbestos to be removed is friable—the way the area of removal will be enclosed; (j) the estimated quantity of asbestos to be removed; (k) the number of workers who are to carry out the asbestos removal work; (l) for each worker who is to carry out asbestos removal work—details of the worker's competency to carry out asbestos removal work. 467—Licensed asbestos removalist must inform certain persons about intended asbestos removal work (1) This regulation applies if a licensed asbestos removalist is to carry out licensed asbestos removal work at a workplace. (2) The licensed asbestos removalist must, before commencing the licensed asbestos removal work, inform the person with management or control of the workplace— (a) that licensed asbestos removal work is to be carried out at the workplace; and (b) when the work is to commence. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) If the workplace is residential premises, the licensed asbestos removalist must, so far as is reasonably practicable, before commencing the licensed asbestos removal work inform the following persons that asbestos removal work is to be carried out at the workplace, and when the work is to commence: (a) the person who commissioned the asbestos removal work; (b) a person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace; (c) the occupier of the residential premises; (d) the owner of the residential premises; (e) anyone occupying premises in the immediate vicinity of the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 468—Person with management or control of workplace must inform persons about asbestos removal work (1) This regulation applies if the person with management or control of a workplace is informed that asbestos removal work is to be carried out at the workplace. (2) The person must ensure that the following persons are informed that asbestos removal work is to be carried out at the workplace and when the work is to commence, before the work commences: (a) the person's workers and any other persons at the workplace; (b) the person who commissioned the asbestos removal work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person must take all reasonable steps to ensure that the following persons are informed that asbestos removal work is to be carried out at the workplace, and when the work is to commence, before the work commences: (a) anyone conducting a business or undertaking at, or in the immediate vicinity of, the workplace; (b) anyone occupying premises in the immediate vicinity of the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 469—Signage and barricades for asbestos removal work An asbestos removalist must ensure that— (a) signs alerting persons to the presence of asbestos are placed to indicate where the asbestos removal work is being carried out; and (b) barricades are erected to delineate the asbestos removal area. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 470—Limiting access to asbestos removal area (1) This regulation applies to— (a) a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace who commissions a person to carry out licensed asbestos removal work at the workplace; and (b) a person with management or control of a workplace who is aware that licensed asbestos removal work is being carried out at the workplace. (2) Subject to subregulation (4), the person must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that no one other than the following has access to an asbestos removal area: (a) workers engaged in the asbestos removal work; (b) other persons associated with the asbestos removal work; (c) anyone allowed under these regulations or another law to be in the asbestos removal area. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person may refuse to allow access to an asbestos removal area at the workplace to anyone who does not comply with— (a) a control measure implemented for the workplace in relation to asbestos; or (b) a direction of the licensed asbestos removalist. (4) A person referred to in subregulation (2)(a), (b) or (c) has access to an asbestos removal area subject to any direction of the licensed asbestos removalist. (5) If a person referred to in subregulation (2)(a), (b) or (c) has access to an asbestos removal area, the person must comply with any direction of the licensed asbestos removalist. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 471—Decontamination facilities (1) An asbestos removalist must ensure that facilities are available to decontaminate the following: (a) the asbestos removal area; (b) any plant used in the asbestos removal area; (c) workers carrying out asbestos removal work; (d) other persons who have access to the asbestos removal area under regulation 470(2)(b). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) An asbestos removalist must ensure that nothing that is likely to be contaminated with asbestos is removed from the asbestos removal area unless the thing— (a) is decontaminated before being removed; or (b) is sealed in a container, and the exterior of the container is, before being removed— (i) decontaminated; and (ii) labelled in accordance with the GHS to indicate the presence of asbestos. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 472—Disposing of asbestos waste and contaminated personal protective equipment (1) Subject to subregulations (2) and (3), an asbestos removalist must ensure that asbestos waste— (a) is contained and labelled in accordance with the GHS before the waste is removed from an asbestos removal area; and (b) is disposed of as soon as practicable at a site authorised to accept asbestos waste. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) An asbestos removalist must ensure that personal protective equipment used in asbestos removal work and contaminated with asbestos— (a) is sealed in a container before being removed from an asbestos waste area; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, is disposed of on the completion of the asbestos removal work at a site authorised to accept asbestos waste; and (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to dispose of the personal protective equipment that is clothing— (i) in the case of clothing used by an emergency service organisation—is laundered by an organisation that supplies and maintains equipment for emergency service organisations; or (ii) in any other case or if it is not practicable to launder the clothing—is kept in the sealed container until it is re‑used for asbestos removal purposes; and (d) if it is not reasonably practicable to dispose of the personal protective equipment that is not clothing— (i) is decontaminated before it is removed from the asbestos removal area; or (ii) if it is not practicable to decontaminate the equipment in the asbestos removal area—is kept in the sealed container until it is re‑used for asbestos removal purposes. Example— Work boots. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) An asbestos removalist must ensure that a sealed container referred to in subregulation (2) is decontaminated and labelled in accordance with the GHS to indicate the presence of asbestos before being removed from the asbestos removal area. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 473—Clearance inspection (1) This regulation applies if a person commissions licensed asbestos removal work at a workplace. (2) The person or, if the workplace is residential premises, the licensed asbestos removalist must ensure that, when the licensed asbestos removal work is completed, a clearance inspection of the asbestos removal area at the workplace is carried out by— (a) if the asbestos removal work must be carried out by the holder of a Class A asbestos removal licence—an independent licensed asbestos assessor; or (b) in any other case—an independent competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In this regulation, a clearance inspection is an inspection of an asbestos removal area after asbestos removal work has been completed to verify that the area is safe for normal use, that— (a) includes a visual inspection; and (b) may include air monitoring. Note— If it is not reasonably practicable for the licensed asbestos assessor or competent person to be independent, the person or licensed asbestos removalist may apply to the regulator for an exemption under Chapter 11 Part 2 from the requirement that the assessor or competent person be independent. 474—Clearance certificates (1) This regulation applies if a clearance inspection has been made in accordance with regulation 473. (2) The licensed asbestos assessor or competent person who carried out the clearance inspection must issue a clearance certificate, in accordance with this regulation, before the asbestos removal area at the workplace is re‑occupied. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The licensed asbestos assessor or competent person must ensure that the asbestos removal area does not pose a risk to health and safety from exposure to asbestos. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The licensed asbestos assessor or competent person must not issue a clearance certificate unless satisfied that— (a) the asbestos removal area, and the area immediately surrounding it, are free from visible asbestos contamination; and (b) if the assessor or competent person undertook air monitoring as part of the clearance inspection—the monitoring shows asbestos below 0.01 fibres/ml. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) The clearance certificate must be in writing and must state that— (a) the assessor or competent person found no visible asbestos residue from asbestos removal work in the area, or in the vicinity of the area, where the work was carried out; and (b) if air monitoring was carried out by the assessor or competent person as part of the clearance inspection—the airborne asbestos fibre level was less than 0.01 asbestos fibres/ml. Part 8—Asbestos removal requiring asbestos removal licence 475—Air monitoring—asbestos removal requiring asbestos removal licence (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions asbestos removal work requiring an asbestos removal licence at a workplace must ensure that an independent licensed asbestos assessor undertakes air monitoring of the asbestos removal area at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the workplace is residential premises, the licensed removalist carrying out asbestos removal work requiring an asbestos removal licence at the premises must ensure that an independent licensed asbestos assessor undertakes air monitoring of the asbestos removal area at the premises. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The air monitoring must be carried out— (a) immediately before the licensed asbestos removal work commences, unless glove bags are to be used for the removal; and (b) while the licensed asbestos removal work is carried out. (4) The person who commissions the licensed asbestos removal work must ensure that the results of the air monitoring are given to the following: (a) workers at the workplace; (b) health and safety representatives for workers at the workplace; (c) a person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace; (d) other persons at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) If the workplace is residential premises, the licensed asbestos removalist carrying out the licensed asbestos removal work at the premises must ensure that the results of the air monitoring are given to the following: (a) the person who commissioned the asbestos removal work; (b) workers at the workplace; (c) health and safety representatives for workers at the workplace; (d) a person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace; (e) the occupier of the residential premises; (f) the owner of the residential premises; (g) other persons at the workplace. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) An independent licensed asbestos assessor, who undertakes air monitoring for the purposes of this regulation, must use the membrane filter method for the air monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 476—Action if respirable asbestos fibre level too high (1) The licensed removalist carrying out asbestos removal work requiring an asbestos removal licence at a workplace must— (a) if respirable asbestos fibre levels are recorded at the asbestos removal area at 0.01 fibres/ml or more, but not more than 0.02 fibres/ml—immediately— (i) investigate the cause of the respirable asbestos fibre level; and (ii) implement controls to prevent exposure of anyone to asbestos; and (iii) prevent the further release of respirable asbestos fibres; and (b) if respirable asbestos fibre levels are recorded at the asbestos removal area at more than 0.02 fibres/ml—immediately— (i) order the asbestos removal work to stop; and (ii) notify the regulator; and (iii) investigate the cause of the respirable asbestos fibre level; and (iv) implement controls to prevent exposure of anyone to asbestos; and (v) prevent the further release of respirable asbestos fibre. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the licensed removalist stops asbestos removal work requiring an asbestos removal licence because the recorded respirable asbestos fibre level exceeds 0.02 fibres/ml, the removalist must ensure that the asbestos removal work does not resume until air monitoring shows that the recorded respirable asbestos fibre level is below 0.01 fibres/ml. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 477—Removing friable asbestos (1) A licensed asbestos removalist removing friable asbestos must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the following: (a) the asbestos removal area is enclosed to prevent the release of respirable asbestos fibres; (b) subject to subregulation (3), negative pressure is used; (c) the wet method of asbestos removal is used; (d) subject to subregulation (3), the asbestos removal work does not commence until the air monitoring is commenced by a licensed asbestos assessor; (e) air monitoring is undertaken during the asbestos removal work, at times decided by the independent licensed asbestos assessor undertaking the monitoring; (f) any glove bag used to enclose the asbestos removal area is dismantled and disposed of safely. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A licensed asbestos removalist must ensure that any enclosure used in removing friable asbestos is tested for leaks. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) Subregulations (1)(b) and (1)(d) do not apply if glove bags are used in the Class A asbestos removal work. (4) The licensed removalist must not dismantle an enclosure for a friable asbestos removal area until the removalist receives results of air monitoring, showing that the recorded respirable asbestos fibre level within the enclosure is below 0.01 fibres/ml, from— (a) if the friable asbestos is removed from residential premises—the licensed asbestos assessor who undertook the air monitoring; or (b) in any other case—the person who commissioned the Class A asbestos removal work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) The licensed removalist must ensure that an enclosure for a friable asbestos removal area is dismantled in a way that, so far as is reasonably practicable, eliminates the release of respirable asbestos fibre. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) The person who commissioned the removal of the friable asbestos must obtain a clearance certificate from a licensed asbestos assessor after the enclosure for the friable asbestos removal area has been dismantled. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Part 9—Asbestos-related work 478—Application of Chapter 8 Part 9 This Part applies in relation to asbestos‑related work. 479—Uncertainty as to presence of asbestos (1) If there is uncertainty (based on reasonable grounds) as to whether work to be carried out for a business or undertaking is asbestos‑related work, the person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that analysis of a sample is undertaken to determine if asbestos or ACM is present. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the person must ensure that the sample is analysed only by— (a) a NATA-accredited laboratory accredited for the relevant test method; or (b) a laboratory approved by the regulator in accordance with guidelines published by Safe Work Australia; or (c) a laboratory operated by the regulator. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the person assumes that asbestos is present. 480—Duty to give information about health risks of asbestos‑related work A person conducting a business or undertaking must give the following information to a person likely to be engaged to carry out asbestos‑related work for the business or undertaking before the person is engaged to carry out the work: (a) the health risks and health effects associated with exposure to asbestos; (b) the need for, and details of, health monitoring of a worker carrying out asbestos‑related work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 481—Asbestos-related work to be in separate area A person conducting a business or undertaking that involves the carrying out of asbestos‑related work must ensure that— (a) the asbestos‑related work area is separated from other work areas at the workplace; and (b) signs alerting persons to the presence of asbestos are placed to indicate where the asbestos‑related work is being carried out; and (c) barricades are erected to delineate the asbestos‑related work area. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 482—Air monitoring (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must ensure that a competent person carries out air monitoring of the work area where asbestos‑related work is being carried out if there is uncertainty as to whether the exposure standard is likely to be exceeded. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the competent person determines that the exposure standard has been exceeded at any time in a work area, the person conducting the business or undertaking must, so far as is reasonably practicable— (a) determine the workers and other persons who were in the work area during that time; and (b) warn those workers about possible exposure to respirable asbestos fibres; and (c) so far as is reasonably practicable, warn the other persons about possible exposure to respirable asbestos fibres. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The person conducting the business or undertaking must ensure that information about exposure to respirable asbestos fibres, including the determination made by the competent person and the results of the air monitoring, is readily accessible to the workers and other persons referred to in subregulation (2). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. 483—Decontamination facilities (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking for which asbestos‑related work is carried out must ensure that facilities are available to decontaminate the following: (a) the asbestos‑related work area; (b) any plant used in the asbestos‑related work area; (c) workers carrying out the asbestos‑related work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that nothing that is likely to be contaminated with asbestos is removed from the asbestos‑related work area unless the thing— (a) is decontaminated before being removed; or (b) is sealed in a container, and the exterior of the container is— (i) decontaminated; and (ii) labelled in accordance with the GHS to indicate the presence of asbestos, before being removed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 484—Disposing of asbestos waste and contaminated personal protective equipment (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a person conducting a business or undertaking for which asbestos‑related work is carried out must ensure that asbestos waste— (a) is contained and labelled in accordance with the GHS before the waste is removed from an asbestos‑related work area; and (b) is disposed of as soon as practicable at a site authorised to accept asbestos waste. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The person must ensure that personal protective equipment used in asbestos‑related work and contaminated with asbestos— (a) is sealed in a container, and that the exterior of the container is decontaminated and labelled in accordance with the GHS to indicate the presence of asbestos before being removed; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, is disposed of on the completion of the asbestos‑related work at a site authorised to accept asbestos waste; and (c) if it is not reasonably practicable to dispose of the personal protective equipment that is clothing— (i) in the case of clothing used by an emergency service organisation—is laundered by an organisation that supplies and maintains equipment for emergency service organisations; or (ii) in any other case or if it is not practicable to launder the clothing—is kept in the sealed container until it is re‑used for the purposes of asbestos‑related work; and (d) if it is not reasonably practicable to dispose of the personal protective equipment that is not clothing— (i) is decontaminated before it is removed from the asbestos removal area; or (ii) if it is not practicable to decontaminate the equipment in the asbestos removal area, is kept in the sealed container until it is re‑used for the purposes of asbestos‑related work. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Example— Work boots. (3) The person must ensure that a sealed container referred to in subregulation (2) is decontaminated and labelled in accordance with the GHS to indicate the presence of asbestos before being removed from the asbestos‑related work area. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Part 10—Licensing of asbestos removalists and asbestos assessors Division 1—Asbestos removalists—requirement to be licensed 485—Requirement to hold Class A asbestos removal licence (1) A person must not carry out the removal of the following at a workplace unless the person, or the person on whose behalf the work is carried out, holds a Class A asbestos removal licence: (a) friable asbestos; (b) except as provided in regulation 486, ACD. Note— See section 43(1) of the Act. (2) A person who conducts a business or undertaking must not direct or allow a worker to carry out the removal of the following unless the person holds a Class A asbestos removal licence: (a) friable asbestos; (b) except as provided in regulation 486, ACD. Note— See section 43(2) of the Act. 486—Exception to requirement to hold Class A asbestos removal licence A Class A asbestos removal licence is not required for the removal of ACD that— (a) is associated with the removal of non‑friable asbestos; or (b) is not associated with the removal of friable or non‑friable asbestos and is only a minor contamination. 487—Requirement to hold Class B asbestos removal licence (1) A person must not carry out the removal of the following at a workplace unless the person, or the person on whose behalf the work is carried out, holds a Class B asbestos removal licence or a Class A asbestos removal licence: (a) more than 10 square metres of non‑friable asbestos or ACM; (b) ACD associated with the removal of more than 10 square metres of non‑friable asbestos or ACM. Note— See section 43(1) of the Act. (2) A person who conducts a business or undertaking must not direct or allow a worker to carry out the removal of the following unless the person holds a Class B asbestos removal licence or a Class A asbestos removal licence: (a) more than 10 square metres of non‑friable asbestos or ACM; (b) ACD associated with the removal of more than 10 square metres of non‑friable asbestos or ACM. Note— See section 43(2) of the Act. 488—Recognition of asbestos removal licences in other jurisdictions (1) In this Division, a reference to an asbestos removal licence includes a reference to an equivalent licence— (a) granted under a corresponding WHS law; and (b) that is being used in accordance with the terms and conditions under which it was granted. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a licence that is suspended or cancelled or has expired in the corresponding jurisdiction. Division 2—Asbestos assessors—requirement to be licensed 489—Requirement to hold asbestos assessor licence A person must not carry out the following at a workplace unless the person holds an asbestos assessor licence: (a) air monitoring during asbestos removal work; (b) clearance inspections for Class A asbestos removal work; (c) issuing clearance certificates in relation to Class A asbestos removal work. Note— See section 43(1) of the Act. 490—Recognition of asbestos assessor licences in other jurisdictions (1) In this Division, a reference to an asbestos assessor licence includes a reference to an equivalent licence— (a) granted under a corresponding WHS law; and (b) that is being used in accordance with the terms and conditions under which it was granted. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a licence that is suspended or cancelled or has expired in the corresponding jurisdiction. Division 3—Licensing process 491—Who may apply for a licence (1) Only a person who conducts, or proposes to conduct, a business or undertaking may apply for an asbestos removal licence. (2) Only an individual who holds the qualifications set out in regulation 495 may apply for an asbestos assessor licence. 492—Application for asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence (1) An application for an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the name and address of the applicant; (ab) if required by the regulator of an applicant who is an individual, a photograph of the applicant in the form required by the regulator; (b) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (c) the class of licence to which the application relates; (d) if, in the case of an asbestos removal licence, the applicant conducts the business or undertaking under a business name—that business name and a certificate or other written evidence of the registration of the business name; (e) a declaration that the applicant does not hold an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law; (f) if the applicant is an individual— (i) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant (and in the case of a body corporate, any officer of the body corporate) has ever been convicted or found guilty of any offence under the Act or these regulations or under any corresponding WHS law; and (ii) details of any conviction or finding of guilt declared under subparagraph (i); and (iii) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant (and in the case of a body corporate, any officer of the body corporate) has been convicted or found guilty of any offence in relation to the unlawful disposal of hazardous waste under the Environment Protection Act 1993 or the law of another jurisdiction; and (iv) details of any conviction or finding of guilt declared under subparagraph (iii); and (v) a declaration as to whether or not the applicant has ever entered into an enforceable undertaking under the Act or under any corresponding WHS law; and (vi) details of any enforceable undertaking declared under subparagraph (v); and (vii) if the applicant has previously been refused an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration giving details of that refusal; and (viii) if the applicant has previously held an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration— (A) describing any condition imposed on that licence; and (B) stating whether or not that licence had been suspended or cancelled and, if so, whether or not the applicant had been disqualified from applying for any licence; and (C) giving details of any suspension, cancellation or disqualification; (g) if the applicant is a body corporate, the information referred to in paragraph (f) in relation to— (i) the body corporate; and (ii) each office holder of the body corporate; (h) in the case of an application for an asbestos removal licence—the additional information referred to in regulation 493 or 494, as applicable; (i) in the case of an asbestos assessor licence—the additional information referred to in regulation 495. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 493—Content of application—Class A asbestos removal licence (1) For the purposes of regulation 492(2)(h), an application for a Class A asbestos removal licence must include the following: (a) the names of the competent persons who have been engaged by the applicant to supervise the asbestos removal work to be authorised by the licence; (b) evidence, as required by the regulator, that each named supervisor is at least 18 years of age; (c) a copy of a certification issued to each named supervisor for the specified VET course for the supervision of asbestos removal work; (d) evidence that each named supervisor has at least 3 years of relevant industry experience; (e) evidence that the applicant has a certified safety management system in place. (2) If the applicant is an individual who proposes to supervise the carrying out of the Class A asbestos removal work, the statement and information referred to in subregulation (1)(b), (c) and (d) must relate to the applicant. 494—Content of application—Class B asbestos removal licence (1) For the purposes of regulation 492(2)(h), an application for a Class B asbestos removal licence must include the following: (a) the name of 1 or more competent persons who have been engaged by the applicant to supervise the asbestos removal work to be authorised by the licence; (b) evidence, as required by the regulator, that each named supervisor is at least 18 years of age; (c) a copy of a certification issued to each named supervisor for the specified VET course for the supervision of asbestos removal work; (d) evidence that each named supervisor has at least 1 year of relevant industry experience. (2) If the applicant is an individual who proposes to supervise the carrying out of the Class B asbestos removal work, the statement and information referred to in subregulation (1)(b), (c) and (d) must relate to the applicant. 495—Content of application—asbestos assessor licence For the purposes of regulation 492(2)(i), an application for an asbestos assessor licence must include— (a) evidence that the applicant has acquired through training or experience the knowledge and skills of relevant asbestos removal industry practice; and (b) either— (i) a copy of a certification held by the applicant in relation to the specified VET course for asbestos assessor work; or (ii) evidence that the applicant holds a tertiary qualification in occupational health and safety, industrial hygiene, science, building construction or environmental health. 496—Additional information (1) If an application for a licence does not contain sufficient information to enable the regulator to make a decision whether or not to grant the licence, the regulator may ask the applicant to provide additional information. (2) A request for additional information must— (a) specify the date (not being less than 28 days after the request) by which the additional information is to be given; and (b) be confirmed in writing. (3) If an applicant does not provide the additional information by the date specified, the application is to be taken to have been withdrawn. (4) The regulator may make more than 1 request for additional information. 497—Decision on application (1) Subject to subregulation (3), the regulator must grant an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence if satisfied about— (a) the matters referred to in subregulation (2); and (b) the additional matters referred to in regulation 498 or 499, as applicable. (2) The regulator must be satisfied about the following: (a) the application has been made in accordance with these regulations; (b) the applicant does not hold an equivalent licence under a corresponding WHS law unless that licence is due for renewal; (c) if the applicant is an individual, the applicant— (i) resides in this State; or (ii) resides outside this State and satisfies the regulator that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the licence; (d) if the applicant is a body corporate, the applicant's registered office— (i) is located in this State; or (ii) is located outside this State and the applicant has satisfied the regulator that circumstances exist that justify the grant of the licence; (e) the applicant is able to ensure that the work or other activities to which the licence relates are carried out safely and competently; (f) the applicant is able to ensure compliance with any conditions that will apply to the licence. (3) The regulator must refuse to grant a licence if satisfied that— (a) the applicant is disqualified under a corresponding WHS law from holding an equivalent licence; or (b) the applicant, in making the application, has— (i) given information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given. (4) If the regulator decides to grant the licence, it must notify the applicant within 14 days after making the decision. (5) If the regulator does not make a decision within 120 days after receiving the application or the additional information requested under regulation 496, the regulator is taken to have refused to grant the licence applied for. Note— A refusal to grant a licence (including under subregulation (5)) is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 498—Class A asbestos removal licence—regulator to be satisfied about additional matters For the purposes of regulation 497(1)(b), in relation to a Class A asbestos removal licence, the regulator must be satisfied that— (a) each supervisor named by the applicant— (i) is at least 18 years of age; and (ii) holds a certification for— (A) the specified VET course for the supervision of asbestos removal work; and (B) the specified VET course for the Class A asbestos removal work; and (iii) has at least 3 years of relevant industry experience; and (b) the applicant has a certified safety management system in place. 499—Class B asbestos removal licence—regulator to be satisfied about additional matters For the purposes of regulation 497(1)(b), in relation to a Class B asbestos removal licence the regulator must be satisfied that each supervisor named by the applicant— (a) is at least 18 years of age; and (b) holds a certification for— (i) the specified VET course for the supervision of asbestos removal work; and (ii) the specified VET course for the Class B asbestos removal work; and (c) has at least 1 year of relevant industry experience. 500—Matters to be taken into account (1) For the purposes of regulation 497(2)(e) and (f), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law of which the applicant has been convicted or found guilty; (b) any offence in relation to the unlawful disposal of hazardous waste under the Environment Protection Act 1993 or the law of another jurisdiction of which the applicant has been convicted or found guilty; (c) any enforceable undertaking the applicant (or in the case of a body corporate, any officer of the body corporate) has entered into under the Act or a corresponding WHS law; (d) in relation to any equivalent licence applied for or held by the applicant under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the licence; and (ii) any condition imposed on the licence, if granted; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any licence; (e) the record of the applicant in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. (2) For the purposes of regulation 497(2)(e) and (f), if the applicant is a body corporate, the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the matters referred to in subregulation (1), in relation to— (a) the body corporate; and (b) each officer of the body corporate. 501—Refusal to grant licence—process (1) If the regulator proposes to refuse to grant a licence, the regulator must give the applicant a written notice— (a) informing the applicant of the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the applicant that the applicant may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1), the regulator must— (a) if the applicant has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal to grant the licence—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the applicant has made a submission—decide whether to grant or refuse to grant the licence; and (c) within 14 days after making the decision, give the applicant written notice of the decision, including the reasons for the decision. Note— A refusal to grant a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 502—Conditions of licence (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions in relation to 1 or more of the following: (a) control measures which must be implemented in relation to the carrying out of work or activities under the licence; (b) the recording or keeping of information; (c) requiring the licence holder or a nominated supervisor of the licence holder, to undergo retraining or reassessment during the term of the licence; (d) the provision of information to the regulator; (e) the nature of work or activities authorised by the licence; (f) the circumstances in which work or activities authorised by the licence may be carried out. Note— 1 A person must comply with the conditions of a licence (see section 45 of the Act). 2 A decision to impose a condition on a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 503—Duration of licence Subject to this Part, an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence takes effect on the day it is granted and, unless cancelled earlier, expires 5 years after that day. 504—Licence document (1) If the regulator grants an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence, the regulator must issue to the applicant a licence document in the form determined by the regulator. (2) The licence document must include the following: (a) the name of the licence holder; (b) if the licence holder conducts the business or undertaking under a business name—that business name; (c) in the case of an asbestos removal licence—the class of asbestos removal licence and a description of the work within the scope of the licence; (d) any licence conditions imposed on the licence by the regulator; (e) the date on which the licence was granted; (f) the expiry date of the licence. 505—Licence document to be available (1) A licence holder must keep the licence document available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the licence document is not in the licence holder's possession because— (a) it has been returned to the regulator under regulation 512; and (b) the licence holder has applied for, but has not received, a replacement licence document under regulation 513. Division 4—Amendment of licence and licence document 506—Changes to information (1) The licence holder of an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence must give the regulator written notice of any change to any material particular in any information given at any time by the licence holder to the regulator in relation to the licence within 14 days after the licence holder becomes aware of the change. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) applies whether the information was given in the application for grant or renewal of the licence or in any other circumstance. 507—Change to nominated supervisor (1) If there is a change in relation to a supervisor named to the regulator by the holder of an asbestos removal licence (other than a licence holder who is an individual), the licence holder must— (a) if the change is to remove a supervisor—within 14 days after the change, ask the regulator to amend the licence under regulation 509 to make that change; and (b) if the change is to add a supervisor—give the regulator the information about the supervisor referred to in regulation 498 or 499. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If the change referred to in subregulation (1) is to add a supervisor, that supervisor is not a nominated supervisor for the purposes of these regulations until the regulator has approved the nomination. 508—Amendment imposed by regulator (1) The regulator may, on its own initiative, amend an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence, including by amending the licence to— (a) vary or delete a condition of the licence; or (b) impose a new condition on the licence. (2) If the regulator proposes to amend a licence, the regulator must give the licence holder written notice— (a) setting out the proposed amendment and the reasons for it; and (b) advising the licence holder that the licence holder may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed amendment. (3) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (2)(b), the regulator must— (a) if the licence holder has made a submission in relation to the proposed amendment—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the licence holder has made a submission—decide— (i) to make the proposed amendment; or (ii) not to make any amendment; or (iii) to make a different amendment that results from consideration of any submission made by the licence holder; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the licence holder written notice that— (i) sets out the amendment, if any, or states that no amendment is to be made; and (ii) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed amendment—sets out the regulator's reasons for making the amendment; and (iii) specifies the date (being not less than the 28 days after the licence holder is given the notice) on which the amendment, if any, takes effect. Note— A decision to amend a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 509—Amendment on application by licence holder (1) The regulator, on application by the licence holder, may amend an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence, including by amending the licence to vary or delete a condition of the licence. (2) If the regulator proposes to refuse to amend the licence, the regulator must give the licence holder a written notice— (a) informing the licence holder of the proposed refusal to amend the licence and the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the licence holder that the licence holder may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (3) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (2), the regulator must— (a) if the licence holder has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the licence holder has made a submission—decide— (i) to make the amendment applied for; or (ii) not to make any amendment; or (iii) to make a different amendment that results from consideration of any submission made by the licence holder; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the licence holder written notice of the decision in accordance with this regulation. (4) If the regulator makes the amendment applied for, the notice under subregulation (3)(c) must specify the date (being not less than 28 days after the licence holder is given the notice) on which the amendment takes effect. (5) If the regulator refuses to make the amendment applied for or makes a different amendment, the notice under subregulation (3)(c) must— (a) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed refusal of the amendment applied for—set out the reasons for the regulator's decision; and (b) if the regulator makes a different amendment— (i) set out the amendment; and (ii) specify the date (being not less than 28 days after the licence holder is given the notice) on which the amendment takes effect. Note— A refusal to make the amendment applied for, or a decision to make a different amendment, is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 510—Minor corrections to licence The regulator may make minor amendments to a licence, including an amendment— (a) to correct an obvious error; or (b) to change an address; or (c) that does not impose a significant burden on the licence holder. 511—Regulator to give amended licence to the licence holder If the regulator amends an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence and considers that the licence document requires amendment, the regulator must give the licence holder an amended licence document within 14 days after making the decision to amend the licence. 512—Licence holder to return licence The holder of an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence that has been amended must return the licence document to the regulator for amendment at the written request of the regulator and within the time specified in the request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 513—Replacement licence document (1) A licence holder of an asbestos removal licence or an asbestos assessor licence must notify the regulator as soon as practicable if the licence document is lost, stolen or destroyed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If a licence document is lost, stolen or destroyed, the licence holder may apply to the regulator for a replacement document. Note— A licence holder is required to keep the licence document available for inspection (see regulation 505). (3) An application for a replacement licence document must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (4) The application must— (a) include a declaration describing the circumstances in which the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed; and Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (b) be accompanied by the relevant fee. (5) The regulator must issue a replacement licence document if satisfied that the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed. (6) If the regulator refuses to issue a replacement licence document, it must give the licence holder written notice of this decision, including the reasons for the decision, within 14 days after making the decision. Note— A refusal to issue a replacement licence document is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 514—Voluntary surrender of licence (1) A licence holder may voluntarily surrender the licence document to the regulator. (2) The licence expires on the surrender of the licence document. Division 5—Renewal of licence 515—Regulator may renew licence The regulator may renew an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence on application by the licence holder. 516—Application for renewal (1) An application for renewal of an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the name and address of the applicant; (b) if required by the regulator of an applicant who is an individual, a photograph of the applicant in the form required by the regulator; (c) any other evidence of the applicant's identity required by the regulator; (d) written evidence that the applicant has obtained any retraining or reassessment or taken any other action required under regulation 502; (e) a declaration by the applicant that the applicant or a supervisor named by the applicant, as applicable, has maintained the competency required to carry out the work covered by the licence. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. (4) The application must be made before the expiry of the licence. 517—Provisions relating to renewal of licence (1) For the purposes of this Division— (a) regulation 496 applies as if a reference in that regulation to an application for a licence were a reference to an application to renew a licence; and (b) regulations 497 (except subregulation (5)), 500, 502 and 503 apply as if a reference in regulation 497 to the grant of a licence were a reference to the renewal of a licence; and (c) regulation 501 applies as if a reference in that regulation to a refusal to grant a licence were a reference to a refusal to renew a licence. (2) The regulator must not renew an asbestos removal licence unless the regulator is satisfied about the matters referred to in regulation 518. (3) The regulator must not renew an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence granted to a person under a corresponding WHS law if that licence is renewed under that law. (4) If a licence holder applies under regulation 516 for the renewal of an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence, the licence is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this subregulation, have expired until the licence holder is given notice of the decision on the application. Note— A refusal to renew a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 518—Renewal of asbestos removal licence—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters For the purposes of regulation 517, the regulator must not renew an asbestos removal licence unless satisfied that— (a) each supervisor named by the applicant— (i) holds a certification for the specified VET course for supervision of the asbestos removal work to be authorised by the licence; and (ii) has appropriate experience in the asbestos removal work to be authorised by the licence; and (b) asbestos removal work of the type authorised by the licence has been carried out on behalf of the applicant during the term of the licence. 519—Status of licence during review (1) This regulation applies if the regulator gives a licence holder written notice of its decision to refuse to renew the licence. (2) If the licence holder does not apply for internal review of the decision, the licence continues to have effect until the last of the following events: (a) the expiry of the licence; (b) the end of the time for applying for an internal review. (3) If the licence holder applies for an internal review of the decision, the licence continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the licence holder withdraws the application for review; (b) the regulator makes a decision on the review. (4) If the licence holder does not apply for an external review, the licence continues to have effect until the end of the time for applying for an external review. (5) If the licence holder applies for an external review, the licence continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the licence holder withdraws the application for review; (b) SAET makes a decision on the review. (6) The licence continues to have effect under this regulation even if its expiry date passes. Division 6—Suspension and cancellation of licence 520—Suspension or cancellation of licence (1) The regulator may suspend or cancel an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence if satisfied about 1 or more of the following: (a) the licence holder has failed to ensure that the work or other activities authorised by the licence are carried out safely and competently; (b) the licence holder has failed to ensure compliance with a condition of the licence, including a condition requiring the licence holder, or a nominated supervisor of the licence holder, to undergo retraining or reassessment during the term of the licence; (c) the licence holder, in the application for the grant or renewal of the licence or on request by the regulator for additional information— (i) gave information that was false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given in that application or on that request; (d) in relation to an asbestos removal licence—the licence was granted or renewed on the basis of a certification that was obtained on the basis of the giving of false or misleading information by any person or body; (e) in relation to a Class A asbestos removal licence—the licence holder has failed to have a certified safety management system in place. (2) It is a ground for the suspension or cancellation of an asbestos removal licence if the licence holder does not have a qualified nominated asbestos removal supervisor. Note— Regulation 507 provides for a licence holder to notify the regulator of any change in a nominated supervisor. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(b), a licence holder complies with a condition on the licence that requires the licence holder or a nominated supervisor of the licence holder to undergo retraining or reassessment during the term of the licence if the licence holder provides a certification in relation to that retraining or reassessment. (4) If the regulator suspends or cancels a licence, the regulator may disqualify the licence holder from applying for— (a) a further licence of the same type; or (b) another licence under these regulations to carry out work which requires skills that are the same as or similar to those required for the work authorised by the licence that has been suspended or cancelled. Note— A decision to suspend a licence, to cancel a licence or to disqualify the licence holder from applying for a further licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 521—Matters taken into account (1) In making a decision under regulation 520, the regulator must have regard to— (a) any submissions made by the licence holder under regulation 522; and (b) any advice received from a corresponding regulator. (2) For the purposes of regulation 520(1)(a) and (b), if the licence holder is an individual, the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law, of which the licence holder has been convicted or found guilty; (b) any enforceable undertaking the licence holder has entered into under this Act or a corresponding WHS law; (c) in relation to any equivalent licence applied for or held by the licence holder under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the licence; and (ii) any condition imposed on the licence, if granted; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any licence; (d) the record of the licence holder in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. (3) For the purposes of regulation 520(1)(a) and (b), if the licence holder is a body corporate, the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the matters referred to in subregulation (2), in relation to— (a) the body corporate; and (b) each officer of the body corporate. 522—Notice to and submissions by licence holder Before suspending or cancelling an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence, the regulator must give the licence holder a written notice of the proposed suspension or cancellation and any proposed disqualification— (a) outlining all relevant allegations, facts and circumstances known to the regulator; and (b) advising the licence holder that the licence holder may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice) make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed suspension or cancellation and any proposed disqualification. 523—Notice of decision (1) The regulator must give the licence holder written notice of a decision under regulation 520 to suspend or cancel an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence within 14 days after making the decision. (2) The notice must— (a) state that the licence is to be suspended or cancelled; and (b) if the licence is to be suspended, state— (i) when the suspension begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the suspension; and (iii) whether the licence holder is required to undergo retraining or reassessment or take any other action before the suspension ends; and (iv) whether or not the licence holder is disqualified from applying for a further licence during the suspension; and (c) if the licence is to be cancelled, state— (i) when the cancellation takes effect; and (ii) the reasons for the cancellation; and (iii) whether or not the licence holder is disqualified from applying for a further licence; and (d) if the licence holder is disqualified from applying for a further licence, state— (i) when the disqualification begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the disqualification; and (iii) whether or not the licence holder is required to undergo retraining or reassessment or take any other action before the disqualification ends; and (iv) any other class of licence under these regulations that the licence holder is disqualified from applying for; and (e) state when the licence document must be returned to the regulator. 524—Immediate suspension (1) The regulator may suspend an asbestos removal licence or asbestos assessor licence on a ground referred to in regulation 520 without giving notice under regulation 522, if satisfied that— (a) work carried out under the licence should cease because the work may involve an imminent serious risk to the health or safety of any person; or (b) a corresponding regulator has suspended an equivalent licence held by the licence holder under this regulation as applying in the corresponding jurisdiction. (2) If the regulator decides to suspend a licence under this regulation— (a) the regulator must give the licence holder written notice of the suspension and the reasons for the suspension; and (b) the suspension of the licence takes effect on the giving of the notice. (3) The regulator must then— (a) give notice under regulation 522 within 14 days after giving the notice under subregulation (2); and (b) make its decision under regulation 520. (4) If the regulator does not give notice under subregulation (3), the suspension ends at the end of the 14 day period. (5) If the regulator gives notice under subregulation (3), the licence remains suspended until the decision is made under regulation 520. 525—Licence holder to return licence document A licence holder, on receiving a notice under regulation 523, must return the licence document to the regulator in accordance with the notice. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 526—Regulator to return licence document after suspension The regulator must return the licence document to the licence holder within 14 days after the licence suspension ends. Division 7—General 527—Asbestos removal licence register The regulator must keep a register of— (a) each person holding an asbestos removal licence; and (b) each supervisor named to the regulator in relation to an asbestos removal licence. 528—Asbestos assessors register The regulator must keep a publicly available register of each person holding an asbestos assessor licence. 529—Work must be supervised by named supervisor A person who holds an asbestos removal licence must ensure that asbestos removal work authorised by the licence is supervised by a supervisor named to the regulator by the licence holder. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$432. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$2 160. Chapter 8A—Crystalline silica Part 1—Preliminary 529A—Meaning of processing in relation to crystalline silica substances and related terms (1) In these regulations, processing in relation to a CSS means— (a) the use of power tools or mechanical plant to carry out an activity involving the crushing, cutting, grinding, trimming, sanding, abrasive polishing or drilling of a CSS; or (b) the use of roadheaders to excavate material that is a CSS; or (c) the quarrying of a material that is a CSS; or (d) mechanical screening involving a material that is a CSS; or (e) tunnelling through a material that is a CSS; or (f) a process that exposes, or is reasonably likely to expose, a person to respirable crystalline silica during the manufacture or handling of a CSS. (2) In these regulations, crystalline silica substance (CSS) means material that contains at least 1% crystalline silica, determined as a weight/weight (w/w) concentration. Note— Engineered stone is a type of CSS. (3) In these regulations, crystalline silica— (a) means crystalline polymorphs of silica; and (b) includes the following substances: (i) cristobalite; (ii) quartz; (iii) tridymite; (iv) tripoli. (4) In these regulations, engineered stone— (a) means a CSS that— (i) is an artificial product; and (ii) is created by combining natural stone materials with other chemical constituents such as water, resins or pigments; and (iii) becomes hardened; but (b) does not include the following: (i) concrete and cement products; (ii) bricks, pavers and other similar blocks; (iii) ceramic wall and floor tiles; (iv) grout, mortar and render; (v) plasterboard; (vi) porcelain products; (vii) sintered stone; (viii) roof tiles. 529B—When processing of CSS is controlled (1) In these regulations, the processing of a CSS is controlled if— (a) control measures to eliminate or minimise risks arising from the processing are implemented so far as is reasonably practicable; and (b) at least 1 of the following measures are used during the processing: (i) the isolation of a person from dust exposure; (ii) a fully enclosed operator cabin fitted with a high efficiency air filtration system; (iii) an effective wet dust suppression method; (iv) an effective on-tool extraction system; (v) an effective local exhaust ventilation system; and (c) a person still at risk of being exposed to respirable crystalline silica after 1 or more of the measures in paragraph (b) are used— (i) is provided with respiratory protective equipment; and (ii) wears the respiratory protective equipment while the work is carried out. Note— See also regulation 351. (2) Despite subregulation (1), if the measures in subregulation (1)(b) are not reasonably practicable, the processing of a CSS is controlled if a person who is at risk of being exposed to respirable crystalline silica during the processing— (a) is provided with respiratory protective equipment; and (b) wears the respiratory protective equipment while the work is carried out. (3) In this regulation— respiratory protective equipment means personal protective equipment that— (a) is designed to prevent a person wearing the equipment from inhaling airborne contaminants; and (b) complies with— (i) AS/NZS 1716:2012 (Respiratory protective devices); and (ii) AS/NZS 1715:2009 (Selection, use and maintenance of respiratory protective equipment). Note— Regulations 44, 45 and 46 apply to the provision and use of personal protective equipment, including the respiratory protective equipment provided under subregulation (1)(c) and (2). 529C—Duty for processing of CSS to be controlled A person conducting a business or undertaking must not carry out, or direct or allow a worker to carry out, processing of a CSS unless the processing is controlled. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. Note— Regulations 529D and 529F apply to the processing of engineered stone. 529CA—Identifying processing of CSS that is high risk (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must assess the processing of a CSS carried out by the business or undertaking at the workplace to determine if the processing is high risk. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. (2) In assessing whether the processing of a CSS is high risk, the person must have regard to the following: (a) the specific processing that will be undertaken; (b) the form or forms of crystalline silica present in the CSS; (c) the proportion of crystalline silica contained in the CSS, determined as a weight/weight (w/w) concentration; (d) the hazards associated with the work, including the likely frequency and duration that a person will be exposed to respirable crystalline silica; (e) whether the airborne concentration of respirable crystalline silica that is present at the workplace is reasonably likely to exceed half the workplace exposure standard; (f) any relevant air and health monitoring results previously undertaken at the workplace; (g) any previous incidents, illnesses or diseases associated with exposure to respirable crystalline silica at the workplace. (3) In assessing whether the processing of a CSS is high risk, the person must not— (a) rely on the control measures implemented under regulation 529B(1)(b); or (b) have regard to the use of personal protective equipment and administrative controls used to control the risks associated with respirable crystalline silica. (4) The person must ensure that a risk assessment conducted under subregulation (1) is recorded in writing. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 700. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$8 500. (5) If a person conducting a business or undertaking is unable to determine whether the processing of a CSS carried out at the workplace is high risk, the processing is taken to be high risk until the person determines that the processing is not high risk. 529CB—Silica risk control plan required for processing of CSS that is high risk (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking carrying out the processing of a CSS that is high risk must, before the processing commences, ensure that a silica risk control plan for the processing— (a) is prepared; or (b) has already been prepared by another person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. (2) A silica risk control plan must— (a) identify all the processing of a CSS carried out at the workplace that is high risk; and (b) include the risk assessment undertaken under regulation 529CA for all processing of a CSS that is high risk; and (c) document what control measures will be used to control the risks associated with the processing that is high risk and how those measures will be implemented, monitored and reviewed; and (d) be set out and expressed in a way that is readily accessible and understandable to persons who use it. (3) A silica risk control plan is not required to be prepared before the processing of a CSS that is high risk if— (a) the processing that is high risk is also high risk construction work; and (b) a safe work method statement is prepared, or has already been prepared by another person, before the processing commences; and (c) the safe work method statement satisfies the requirements in subregulation (2). 529CC—Compliance with silica risk control plan (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking carrying out the processing of a CSS that is high risk must put in place arrangements for ensuring that the processing is carried out in accordance with the silica risk control plan, including by ensuring that the silica risk control plan is— (a) available to all workers; and (b) provided to all workers before they commence the processing. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. (2) If the processing of a CSS that is high risk is not carried out in accordance with the silica risk control plan that applies to the processing, the person must ensure that the processing— (a) is stopped immediately or as soon as it is safe to do so; and (b) resumed only in accordance with the silica risk control plan. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a silica risk control plan is reviewed and as necessary revised if relevant control measures are revised under regulation 38. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$5 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$25 000. 529CD—Duty to train workers about risks of crystalline silica (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking must ensure that a worker receives crystalline silica training if the person reasonably believes that the worker may be— (a) involved in the processing of a CSS that is high risk; or (b) be at risk of exposure to respirable crystalline silica because of the processing of a CSS that is high risk. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. (2) The person must ensure that a record is kept of the training undertaken by the worker— (a) while the worker is carrying out the processing of a CSS that is high risk; and (b) for 5 years after the day the worker ceases working for the person. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 700. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$8 500. (3) The person must keep the record available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 700. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$8 500. (4) In this regulation— crystalline silica training means training that is accredited, or training approved by the regulator, in relation to the following: (a) the health risks associated with exposure to respirable crystalline silica; (b) the need for, and proper use of, any risk control measures required by the Regulations. Note— Division 1 of Chapter 3 Part 2 also applies to a person conducting a business or undertaking involving the processing of a CSS. 529CE—Monitoring in relation to processing of CSS that is high risk A person conducting a business or undertaking that is carrying out, or directing or allowing a worker to carry out, the processing of a CSS that is high risk, must— (a) undertake air monitoring for respirable crystalline silica in accordance with regulation 50; and (b) provide air monitoring results to the regulator, in a form approved by the regulator, if the airborne concentration of respirable crystalline silica has exceeded the workplace exposure standard as soon as reasonably practicable and no more than 14 days from the date that the air monitoring result was reported to the person conducting a business or undertaking; and (c) provide health monitoring for all workers carrying out the processing of a CSS that is high risk in accordance with Division 6 of Chapter 7 Part 1 of the Regulations. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. Part 2—Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs 529D—Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs—prohibition A person conducting a business or undertaking must not carry out, or direct or allow a worker to carry out, work that involves manufacturing, supplying, processing or installing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$8 400. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$42 000. Note— Under Chapter 11 Part 2 Division 3A, work involving a type of engineered stone may be the subject of an exemption from this regulation. 529E—Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs—exception for particular supply and installation Regulation 529D does not apply to work that involves supplying or installing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs if the work is— (a) for genuine research and analysis; or (b) to sample and identify engineered stone. 529F—Work involving engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs—exception for particular processing Regulation 529D does not apply to work that involves processing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs if the work— (a) is carried out— (i) for genuine research and analysis; or (ii) to sample and identify engineered stone; or (iii) to remove, repair or make minor modifications to installed engineered stone; or (iv) to dispose of the engineered stone, whether it is installed or not; and (b) is controlled. Part 3—Regulator to be notified of particular processing of engineered stone 529G—Notification of particular processing of engineered stone (1) This regulation applies if work that involves processing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs is carried out— (a) to remove, repair or make minor modifications to installed engineered stone; or (b) to dispose of the engineered stone, whether it is installed or not. (2) Before the work is carried out, a person conducting a business or undertaking carrying out, or directing or allowing a worker to carry out, the work must give the regulator a written notice in the form approved by the regulator— (a) stating the work being carried out; and (b) describing the type of work being carried out; and (c) stating the frequency and duration of the work; and (d) stating the other information in relation to the work required by the approved form, if any. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$5 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$25 000. (3) Subregulation (2) does not apply to a person conducting a business or undertaking if— (a) the person conducting the business or undertaking does not know, and could not reasonably be expected to know, before the work is carried out that the work involves processing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs; and (b) as soon as practicable after the person conducting the business or undertaking becomes aware that the work involves processing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs, the person gives the regulator a written notice under subregulation (2) in relation to the work. (4) If the regulator receives a notice under subregulation (2) or (3), the regulator must give the person conducting the business or undertaking an acknowledgement of receipt of the notice. 529H—Notification of change in information given under Part 3 (1) If the information given to the regulator in a written notice under this Part in relation to work changes (other than because the work is no longer being carried out), a person conducting a business or undertaking carrying out, or directing or allowing a worker to carry out, the work must, within the period ending 30 days after the day the change occurs, give the regulator a written notice— (a) stating the information has changed; and (b) describing the change to the information. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$5 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$25 000. (2) If the regulator receives a notice under subregulation (1), the regulator must give the person conducting the business or undertaking an acknowledgement of receipt of the notice. 529I—Notification that work continues 12 months after last notice given under Part 3 (1) This regulation applies if— (a) a person conducting a business or undertaking gives a notice under this Part in relation to work; and (b) a period of 12 months beginning on the day the last notice is given about the work ends; and (c) the work is still being carried out. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking carrying out, or directing or allowing a worker to carry out, the work must, within the period of 30 days ending after the day the 12‑month period ends, give the regulator a written notice stating— (a) the work is still being carried out; and (b) any information given to the regulator that has changed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$5 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$25 000. (3) If the regulator receives a notice under subregulation (2), the regulator must give the person conducting the business or undertaking an acknowledgement of receipt of the notice. 529J—Duty to keep notice given under Part 3 A person conducting a business or undertaking who gives the regulator a notice under this Part must, for a period of 5 years beginning on the day the notice is given to the regulator— (a) keep a copy of the notice; and (b) ensure that a copy of the notice is readily accessible; and (c) allow a person to access a copy of the notice upon request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$5 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$25 000. Chapter 9—Major hazard facilities Part 1—Preliminary Division 1—Application and interpretation 530—This Chapter does not apply to certain facilities (1) This Chapter does not apply in relation to a facility that is regulated by the National Offshore Petroleum Safety and Environmental Management Authority under the Offshore Petroleum and Greenhouse Gas Storage Act 2006 of the Commonwealth. (2) This Chapter does not apply in relation to— (a) a temporary port storage facility controlled and managed by a port operator within the meaning of the Harbors and Navigation Act 1993; or (b) a pipeline— (i) that forms part of a distribution system within the meaning of the Gas Act 1997; or (ii) that is a transmission pipeline, or part of a transmission pipeline, to which a pipeline licence under the Petroleum and Geothermal Energy Act 2000 relates; or (iii) to which a pipeline licence under the Petroleum (Submerged Lands) Act 1982 relates; or (c) a magazine at which explosives may be kept under the Explosives Act 1936 and located at a site at which no processing involving dangerous goods, including explosives, is carried out. 531—Meaning of major incident (1) In this Chapter— major incident, at a major hazard facility, is an occurrence that— (a) results from an uncontrolled event at the major hazard facility involving, or potentially involving, Schedule 15 chemicals; and (b) exposes a person to a serious risk to health or safety emanating from an immediate or imminent exposure to the occurrence. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), occurrence includes any of the following: (a) escape, spillage or leakage; (b) implosion, explosion or fire. 532—Meaning of hazardous chemicals that are present or likely to be present (1) A reference in these regulations to hazardous chemicals, including Schedule 15 chemicals, being present or likely to be present at a facility is a reference to the quantity of hazardous chemicals that would, if present, meet the maximum capacity of the facility, including— (a) the maximum capacity of process vessels and interconnecting pipe systems that contain the hazardous chemicals; and (b) the maximum capacity of storage tanks and vessels used for the hazardous chemicals; and (c) the maximum capacity of other storage areas at the facility that could contain the hazardous chemicals; and (d) the maximum capacity of pipe work outside process areas to contain the hazardous chemicals; and (e) the maximum quantity of hazardous chemicals that would, in the event of failure, escape into the facility from pipe work that is situated off the premises but is connected to the facility; and (f) the maximum quantity of hazardous chemicals loaded into or onto, or unloaded from, vehicles, trailers, rolling stock and ships that are from time to time present at the facility in the course of the facility's operations. (2) Subregulation (1) applies with any necessary changes to hazardous chemicals that are likely to be present at a proposed facility. (3) Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present in the tailings dam of a mine are not to be considered in determining whether a mine is a facility or a major hazard facility. 533—Meaning of operator of a facility or proposed facility (1) In this Chapter— operator, of a facility, is the person conducting the business or undertaking of operating the facility who has— (a) management or control of the facility; and (b) the power to direct that the whole facility be shut down. (2) In this Chapter— operator of a proposed facility means— (a) the operator of a proposed facility that is an existing workplace; or (b) the person who is to be the operator of a proposed facility that is being designed or constructed. (3) If more than 1 person is an operator of the facility within the meaning of subregulation (1)— (a) 1 of those persons must be selected as the operator of the facility for the purposes of this Chapter; and (b) that person's details must be given to the regulator. (4) The person selected— (a) must notify the regulator of the nomination; and (b) may do so by including it in a notification under regulation 536. (5) The person selected under subregulation (3) is the operator of the facility for the purposes of this Chapter. (6) If a selection is not made, each of the following persons is taken to be an operator of the facility for the purposes of this Chapter: (a) each operator within the meaning of subregulation (1) who is an individual; (b) for each operator within the meaning of subregulation (1) that is a body corporate—each officer of the body corporate. 534—Meaning of modification of a facility (1) In these regulations, a reference to a modification of a major hazard facility is a reference to a change or proposed change at the major hazard facility that has or would have the effect of— (a) creating a major incident hazard that has not previously been identified; or (b) significantly increasing the likelihood of a major incident occurring; or (c) in relation to a major incident that may occur—significantly increasing— (i) its magnitude; or (ii) the severity of its health and safety consequences. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), change or proposed change at a major hazard facility means a change or proposed change of any kind, including any of the following: (a) a change to any plant, structure, process or chemical or other substance used in a process, including the introduction of new plant, a new structure, a new process or a new chemical; (b) a change to the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at the major hazard facility; (c) a change to the operation, or the nature of the operation, of the major hazard facility; (d) a change in the workers' safety role; (e) a change to the major hazard facility's safety management system; (f) an organisational change at the major hazard facility, including a change in its senior management. Division 2—Requirement to be licensed 535—A major hazard facility must be licensed (1) A facility at which Schedule 15 chemicals are present or likely to be present in a quantity that exceeds their threshold quantity must be licensed under Chapter 9 Part 7. Note— See section 41 of the Act. (2) A facility that is determined to be a major hazard facility under regulation 541 must be licensed under Chapter 9 Part 7. Note— See section 41 of the Act. (3) Despite subregulation (1) or (2), a determined major hazard facility is exempt from the requirement to be licensed during the exemption period if the operator of the major hazard facility is taken to be a suitable person to operate the facility for the purposes of Chapter 9 Part 2. (4) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must hold the licence for the major hazard facility. (5) In this regulation— exemption period, in relation to a determined major hazard facility, means the period beginning on the determination of the facility and ending on the first of the following to occur: (a) the revocation of the determination of the facility under regulation 546; (b) the end of the period for applying for a licence given under regulation 549, unless an application for a licence for the facility is made within that period; (c) the grant of a licence for the facility under Chapter 9 Part 7; (d) if the regulator decides to refuse to grant a licence for the facility— (i) the end of the period for applying for an external review of that decision, unless an application for external review is made within that period; or (ii) the making of the decision on the external review. Notes— 1 The licensing process is provided for in Chapter 9 Part 7. 2 Under Chapter 9 Part 2, an operator of a determined major hazard facility is taken to be a suitable operator if no determination is made under regulation 543. 3 Under Chapter 9 Part 3 the operator of a determined major hazard facility is given a limited time to prepare the major hazard facility to be licensed, including by preparing a safety case. 4 Chapter 9 Part 2 provides for the notification and determination of facilities and operators of facilities. The purpose of notification is to enable the regulator to determine whether— (a) a facility or proposed facility is a major hazard facility; and (b) the operator of a determined major hazard facility is a suitable person to— (i) operate the facility while the determination under paragraph (a) is in force; and (ii) apply for a licence for the facility. Part 2—Determinations about major hazard facilities 536—Operators of certain facilities must notify regulator (1) The operator of a facility at which Schedule 15 chemicals are present or likely to be present in a quantity that exceeds 10% of their threshold quantity must notify the regulator of this circumstance in accordance with this Part. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Notification must be given— (a) as soon as practicable (but not more than 3 months) after the operator becomes aware, or ought reasonably to have become aware, of the circumstance giving rise to the requirement to notify; or (b) within any longer period that the regulator determines if satisfied on application by the operator that there is a reasonable excuse for the delayed notification. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. 537—Notification—proposed facilities (1) The operator of a proposed facility at which Schedule 15 chemicals are likely to be present in a quantity that exceeds 10% of their threshold quantity may notify the regulator of this circumstance. Notes— 1 See definition of proposed facility in regulation 5. 2 For the meaning of likely to be present, see regulation 532. (2) Any notification under this regulation must include the information required by regulation 538 (with any necessary changes). 538—Content of notification (1) A notification under regulation 536 must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The notification must include the following: (a) information about the facility, including the nature of its operations; (b) information about the operator, including the matters specified in subregulation (3); (c) information about the Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility; (d) the nomination of a contact person with whom the regulator can communicate for the purposes of— (i) this Part; and (ii) the licensing process; (e) any additional information required by the regulator. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The information given under subregulation (2) must include the following: (a) the operator's name; (b) whether or not the operator is a body corporate; (c) any other evidence of the operator's identity required by the regulator; (d) if the operator is an individual— (i) a declaration as to whether or not the operator has ever been convicted or found guilty of any offence under the Act or these regulations or under any corresponding WHS law; and (ii) details of any conviction or finding of guilt declared under subparagraph (i); and (iii) a declaration as to whether or not the operator has ever entered into an enforceable undertaking under the Act or under any corresponding WHS law; and (iv) details of any enforceable undertaking declared under subparagraph (iii); and (v) if the operator has previously been refused a major hazard facility licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration giving details of that refusal; and (vi) if the operator has previously held a major hazard facility licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration— (A) describing any condition imposed on that licence; and (B) stating whether or not that licence had been suspended or cancelled and, if so, whether or not the operator had been disqualified from applying for a major hazard facility licence; and (C) giving details of any suspension, cancellation or disqualification; (e) if the operator is a body corporate, the information specified in paragraph (d) in relation to— (i) the operator; and (ii) each officer of the operator. (4) The notification must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 539—When regulator may conduct inquiry The regulator may conduct an inquiry under this Division if a notification under regulation 536 or 537 discloses, or if for some other reason the regulator reasonably suspects, that— (a) the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at a facility (or proposed facility) exceeds 10% of their threshold quantity but does not exceed their threshold quantity; or (b) the operator of the facility (or proposed facility) may not be a suitable person to operate the facility (or proposed facility). 540—Inquiry procedure (1) This regulation sets out the procedure for an inquiry. (2) The regulator must give a written notice to the person referred to in subregulation (3)— (a) informing the person of the reasons for the inquiry; and (b) advising the person that the person may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after the notice is given), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the inquiry. (3) Notice under subregulation (2) must be given— (a) for an inquiry about a facility in relation to which a notification has been given under regulation 536 or 537—to the contact person identified in the notification; and (b) in any other case—to the operator of the facility. (4) The regulator must— (a) if the recipient of the notice has made a submission in relation to the inquiry—consider that submission; and (b) consult with interested persons including— (i) health and safety representatives at the facility; and (ii) the emergency service organisations that have responsibility for the area in which the facility is located; and (iii) any government department or agency with a regulatory role in relation to major hazard facilities; and (c) decide whether or not to make a determination under regulation 541 or 542; and (d) if it decides to make a determination under regulation 541 or 542—decide whether or not to make a determination in relation to the operator under regulation 543. 541—Determination in relation to facility, on inquiry (1) This regulation applies if an inquiry discloses that the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at a facility or proposed facility exceeds 10% of their threshold quantity, but does not exceed their threshold quantity. (2) The regulator may determine the facility or proposed facility to be a major hazard facility if the regulator considers that there is a potential for a major incident to occur at the facility or proposed facility having regard to all relevant matters, including— (a) the quantity and combination of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility; and (b) the type of activity at the facility that involves the Schedule 15 chemicals; and (c) land use and other activities in the surrounding area. Notes— 1 If an inquiry discloses that the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at a facility exceeds their threshold quantity, the facility is a major hazard facility. See definition of major hazard facility in regulation 5. 2 A determination that a facility is a major hazard facility, or that a proposed facility is not a major hazard facility, is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 542—Determination in relation to over-threshold facility (1) This regulation applies if a notification under regulation 536 or 537 discloses that the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at a facility (or proposed facility) exceeds their threshold quantity. (2) The regulator must make a determination confirming the facility (or proposed facility) to be a major hazard facility. Note— A determination that a facility is a major hazard facility is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 543—Suitability of facility operator (1) This regulation applies if the regulator determines a facility or a proposed facility to be a major hazard facility under regulation 541 or 542. (2) The regulator may determine that the operator of the major hazard facility or proposed major hazard facility is not a suitable person to operate the major hazard facility if the regulator— (a) has conducted an inquiry under regulation 540 into the suitability of the operator; and (b) is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the operator is not a suitable person to operate the major hazard facility or proposed major hazard facility. (3) If no determination is made under this regulation, the operator of the major hazard facility or proposed major hazard facility is taken to be a suitable person to operate the major hazard facility and to apply for a major hazard facility licence. Note— A determination that a person is not a suitable operator is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 544—Conditions on determination of major hazard facility (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on a determination made under regulation 541 or 542. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions in relation to 1 or more of the following: (a) additional control measures that must be implemented in relation to the carrying out of work or activities at the determined major hazard facility; (b) the recording or keeping of additional information; (c) the provision of additional information, training and instruction or the provision of specified information, training and instruction to additional persons or classes of persons; (d) the provision of additional information to the regulator; (e) if the operator is a person conducting a business or undertaking, the additional class of persons who may carry out work or activities on the operator's behalf. (3) The operator of a determined major hazard facility, in relation to which conditions are imposed under this regulation, must ensure that the conditions are complied with. Note— A decision to impose a condition on a determination is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 545—Notice and effect of determinations (1) If the regulator makes a determination under this Part, the regulator must give the operator of the determined major hazard facility a written notice of the determination, stating— (a) the reasons for the determination; and (b) the date on which the determination takes effect, which must be at least 28 days after the date of the notice; and (c) any conditions imposed on the determination under regulation 544. (2) The notice must be given within 14 days of the making of the determination. (3) The effect of a determination under regulation 543 is that— (a) the operator is not taken to be a suitable person to operate the determined major hazard facility; and (b) the exemption provided by regulation 535(3) does not apply to the determined major hazard facility. Note— For the effect of a determination under regulation 541 or 542, see definition of determined major hazard facility in regulation 5. (4) A determination takes effect on the date specified in the notice. (5) A determination is of unlimited duration unless it is revoked. 546—When regulator may revoke a determination The regulator may revoke a determination under this Part if, after consultation with the major hazard facility's contact person or operator (as applicable), the regulator is satisfied that the reasons for the determination no longer apply. 547—Re-notification if quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals increases (1) This regulation applies to a facility or proposed facility— (a) at which the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present exceeds 10% of their threshold quantity but does not exceed their threshold quantity; and (b) in relation to which notification was given under regulation 536 or 537; and (c) in relation to which the regulator— (i) has not conducted an inquiry under this Division; or (ii) on conducting an inquiry, has not determined the facility or proposed facility to be a major hazard facility under regulation 541. (2) The operator of the facility or proposed facility must re‑notify the regulator in accordance with this Part if the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility or proposed facility increases, or is likely to increase, to a level that exceeds the level previously notified to the regulator. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) The provisions of this Part apply, to the extent that they relate to a re‑notification under this regulation, as if the re‑notification were a notification under regulation 536. 548—Notification by new operator (1) This regulation applies— (a) in relation to a determined major hazard facility that is proposed to be operated by a new operator; (b) whether or not a determination under regulation 543 was made in relation to the current operator. (2) A proposed new operator of the determined major hazard facility must give the regulator a notification that contains the information specified in regulation 538(3) in relation to the proposed new operator. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) The provisions of this Part apply, to the extent that they relate to the suitability of an operator, as if the notification under subregulation (2) were a notification under regulation 536. 549—Time in which major hazard facility licence must be applied for (1) Subject to this regulation, the operator of a determined major hazard facility must apply for a major hazard facility licence within 24 months after the determination of the facility. (2) The regulator may extend the time in which the operator of a determined major hazard facility must apply for a licence if satisfied, on application by the operator, that there has not been sufficient time to comply with Chapter 9 Part 3. Note— The exemption from the requirement to be licensed is conditional on an application for a licence being made within the time specified by this regulation (see regulation 535(3) and (5)). Part 3—Duties of operators of determined major hazard facilities Notes— 1 The operator of a determined major hazard facility is required to comply with this Part for a specified period and to prepare a safety case in order to apply for a major hazard facility licence. 2 The Act and Chapter 7 of these regulations (Hazardous chemicals) continue to apply to a determined major hazard facility. Division 1—Application of Chapter 9 Part 3 550—Application of Chapter 9 Part 3 This Part ceases to apply to a determined major hazard facility at the end of the exemption period applying to that facility under regulation 535. Division 2—Safety case outline 551—Safety case outline must be provided The operator of a determined major hazard facility must provide the regulator with a safety case outline for the major hazard facility within 3 months after the facility is determined to be a major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 552—Content A safety case outline provided under regulation 551 must include the following: (a) a written plan for the preparation of the safety case, including key steps and timelines, with reference being made to each element of the safety case; (b) a description of the methods to be used in preparing the safety case, including methods for ensuring that all the information contained in the safety case is accurate and up to date when the safety case is provided to the regulator; (c) details of the resources that will be applied to the preparation of the safety case, including the number of persons involved, their relevant knowledge and experience and sources of technical information; (d) a description of the consultation with workers that— (i) occurred in the preparation of the safety case outline; and (ii) will occur in the preparation of the safety case; (e) a draft of the emergency plan prepared or to be prepared under regulation 557 or, if the major hazard facility is also a mine, the emergency plan prepared under regulation 664; (f) a summary of any arrangements that are to be made in relation to the security of the major hazard facility. Example— Arrangements for preventing unauthorised access to the major hazard facility. 553—Alteration (1) If the regulator is not satisfied that a safety case outline provided by the operator of a determined major hazard facility will lead to the development of a safety case that complies with regulation 561, the regulator may require the operator to alter the outline. (2) If the regulator proposes to require an operator to alter a safety case outline, the regulator must give the operator a written notice— (a) informing the operator of the proposed requirement and the reasons for it; and (b) advising the operator that the operator may make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed requirement; and (c) specifying the date (being not less than 28 days) by which the submission must be made. (3) The regulator must— (a) if the operator has made a submission in relation to the proposed requirement to alter a safety case outline—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the operator has made a submission—decide whether or not to require the operator to alter the outline; and (c) within 14 days after deciding, give the operator written notice of the decision, including details of the alteration required and the reasons why it is required. (4) The operator must alter the outline as required. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (5) The operator must give the regulator a copy of a safety case outline that has been altered— (a) under this regulation; or (b) by the operator on the operator's initiative. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (6) The safety case outline as altered becomes the safety case outline for the major hazard facility. Division 3—Management of risk 554—Identification of major incidents and major incident hazards (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must identify— (a) all major incidents that could occur in the course of the operation of the major hazard facility; and (b) all major incident hazards for the major hazard facility, including major incident hazards relating to the security of the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In complying with subregulation (1), the operator must have regard to any advice and recommendations given by— (a) the emergency service organisations with responsibility for the area in which the major hazard facility is located; and (b) any government department or agency with a regulatory role in relation to major hazard facilities. (3) The operator must document— (a) all identified major incidents and major incident hazards; and (b) the criteria and methods used in identifying the major incidents and major incident hazards; and (c) any external conditions under which the major incident hazards, including those relating to the security of the major hazard facility, might give rise to the major incidents. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 555—Safety assessment (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must conduct a safety assessment in relation to the operation of the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In order to provide the operator with a detailed understanding of all aspects of risks to health and safety associated with major incidents, a safety assessment must involve a comprehensive and systematic investigation and analysis of all aspects of risks to health and safety associated with all major incidents that could occur in the course of the operation of the major hazard facility, including the following: (a) the nature of each major incident and major incident hazard; (b) the likelihood of each major incident hazard causing a major incident; (c) in the event of a major incident occurring, its potential magnitude and the severity of its potential health and safety consequences; (d) the range of control measures considered; (e) the control measures the operator decides to implement. (3) In conducting a safety assessment, the operator must— (a) consider major incidents and major incident hazards cumulatively as well as individually; and (b) use assessment methods (whether quantitative or qualitative, or both), that are suitable for the major incidents and major incident hazards being considered. (4) The operator must document all aspects of the safety assessment, including— (a) the methods used in the investigation and analysis; and (b) the reasons for deciding which control measures to implement. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$720. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$3 600. (5) The operator must keep a copy of the safety assessment at the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 556—Control of risk (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must implement control measures that— (a) eliminate, so far as is reasonably practicable, the risk of a major incident occurring; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate that risk—minimise that risk so far as is reasonably practicable. Note— WHS Act—section 20 (see regulation 9). (2) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must implement risk control measures designed to minimise, in the event of a major incident occurring, its magnitude and the severity of its consequences to persons both on‑site and off‑site. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 557—Emergency plan (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must prepare an emergency plan for the major hazard facility that— (a) addresses all health and safety consequences of a major incident occurring; and (b) includes all matters specified in Schedule 16; and (c) provides for testing of emergency procedures, including the frequency of testing. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In preparing an emergency plan, the operator must consult with— (a) the emergency service organisations with responsibility for the area in which the major hazard facility is located; and (b) in relation to the off‑site health and safety consequences of a major incident occurring—the local authority. (3) The operator must ensure that the emergency plan addresses any recommendation made by the emergency service organisations consulted under subregulation (2) in relation to— (a) the testing of the emergency plan, including the manner in which it will be tested, the frequency of testing and whether or not the emergency service organisations will participate in the testing; and (b) what incidents or events at the major hazard facility should be notified to the emergency service organisations. (4) The operator must have regard to any other recommendation or advice given by a person consulted under subregulation (2). (5) The operator must— (a) keep a copy of the plan at the major hazard facility; and (b) give a copy of the plan to— (i) the emergency service organisations consulted under subregulation (2); and (ii) any other relevant emergency service organisations. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (6) The operator must test the emergency plan in accordance with the recommendations made by the emergency service organisations consulted under subregulation (2) before applying for a licence for the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (7) The operator must immediately implement the emergency plan if— (a) a major incident occurs in the course of the operation of the major hazard facility; or (b) an event occurs that could reasonably be expected to lead to a major incident. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (8) The operator must notify the emergency service organisations consulted under subregulation (2) of the occurrence of an incident or event referred to in subregulation (3)(b). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (9) This regulation does not apply to the operator of a major hazard facility that is also a mine if— (a) the operator has prepared an emergency plan for the mine that complies with regulation 664; and (b) the plan addresses all matters required to be addressed under this regulation and includes all matters specified in Schedule 16. Note— This regulation applies in addition to regulation 43. 558—Safety management system (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must establish a safety management system for the operation of the major hazard facility, in accordance with this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must implement the safety management system for the major hazard facility, so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The safety management system must— (a) provide a comprehensive and integrated system for the management of all aspects of risk control in relation to the occurrence and potential occurrence of major incidents at the major hazard facility; and (b) be designed to be used by the operator as the primary means of ensuring the safe operation of the major hazard facility. (4) The safety management system must— (a) be documented; and (b) state the operator's safety policy, including the operator's broad aims in relation to the safe operation of the major hazard facility; and (c) state the operator's specific safety objectives and describe the systems and procedures that will be used to achieve those objectives; and (d) include the matters specified in Schedule 17; and (e) be readily accessible to persons who use it. (5) This regulation does not apply to the operator of a major hazard facility that is also a mine if— (a) the operator has established a safety management system for the mine that complies with regulation 621; and (b) the system— (i) deals with all matters required to be addressed by a safety management system under this regulation and includes all matters specified in Schedule 17; and (ii) is readily accessible to persons who use it. 559—Review of risk management (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must review and as necessary revise the following, in accordance with this regulation: (a) the safety assessment conducted under regulation 555 in order to ensure the adequacy of the control measures to be implemented by the operator; (b) the major hazard facility's emergency plan (unless, in the case of a major hazard facility that is also a mine, the operator of the facility is not required to prepare an emergency plan for the facility under regulation 557 because the operator has prepared a suitable emergency plan under regulation 664); (c) the major hazard facility's safety management system (unless, in the case of a major hazard facility that is also a mine, the operator of the facility is not required to establish a safety management system for the facility under regulation 558 because the operator has established a suitable safety management system under regulation 661). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the operator must conduct a review and revision in the following circumstances: (a) a modification to the major hazard facility is proposed; (b) a control measure implemented under regulation 556 does not minimise the relevant risk so far as is reasonably practicable; Example— An effectiveness test indicates a deficiency in the control measure. (c) a new major hazard risk is identified; (d) the results of consultation by the operator under Chapter 9 Part 5 indicate that a review is necessary; (e) a health and safety representative requests a review under subregulation (4); (f) the regulator requires the review. (3) In reviewing and revising the emergency plan, the operator must consult with the emergency service organisations referred to in regulation 557(2). (4) A health and safety representative for workers at a major hazard facility may request a review if the representative reasonably believes that— (a) a circumstance referred to in subregulation (2)(a), (b), (c) or (d) affects or may affect the health and safety of a member of the work group represented by the health and safety representative; and (b) the operator has not adequately conducted a review in response to the circumstance. (5) If a major hazard facility is also a mine and an emergency plan that complies with regulation 664 has been prepared in relation to the facility, the plan must be reviewed in accordance with regulation 670. (6) If a major hazard facility is also a mine and a safety management system that complies with regulation 621 has been established in relation to the facility, the system must be reviewed in accordance with regulation 625. Division 4—Safety case 560—Safety case must be provided The operator of a determined major hazard facility must provide the regulator with a completed safety case for the major hazard facility, that has been prepared in accordance with regulation 561, within 24 months after the facility was determined to be a major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 561—Content (1) The operator must prepare the safety case in accordance with the safety case outline prepared or altered under this Division. (2) A safety case must contain the following: (a) a summary of the identification conducted under regulation 554, including a list of all major incidents identified; (b) a summary of the safety assessment conducted under regulation 555; (c) a summary of the major hazard facility's emergency plan; (d) a summary of the major hazard facility's safety management system; (e) a description of any arrangements made in relation to the security of the major hazard facility; (f) a description of the consultation with workers that took place under regulation 575 in the preparation of the safety case; (g) the additional matters specified in Schedule 18. (3) The safety case must include any further information that is necessary to ensure that all information contained in the safety case is accurate and up to date. (4) A safety case must demonstrate— (a) that the major hazard facility's safety management system will, once implemented, control risks arising from major incidents and major incident hazards; and (b) the adequacy of the measures to be implemented by the operator to control risks associated with the occurrence and potential occurrence of major incidents. (5) The operator must include in the safety case a signed statement that— (a) the information provided under subregulations (1) and (2) is accurate and up to date; and (b) as a consequence of conducting the safety assessment, the operator has a detailed understanding of all aspects of risk to health and safety associated with major incidents that may occur; and (c) the control measures to be implemented by the operator— (i) will eliminate the risk of a major incident occurring, so far as is reasonably practicable; and (ii) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate the risk of a major incident occurring—will minimise the risk so far as is reasonably practicable; and (iii) in the event of a major incident occurring—will minimise its magnitude and the severity of its health and safety consequences so far as is reasonably practicable; and (d) all persons to be involved in the implementation of the safety management system have the knowledge and skills necessary to enable them to carry out their role safely and competently. (6) If the operator is a body corporate, the safety case must be signed by the most senior executive officer of the body corporate who resides in this State. 562—Co-ordination for multiple facilities (1) The regulator may require the operators of 2 or more major hazard facilities to co‑ordinate the preparation of the safety cases for their major hazard facilities if the regulator is satisfied on reasonable grounds that such co‑ordination is necessary in the interests of the safe operation and effective safety management of any or all of those major hazard facilities. (2) If the regulator requires the co‑ordinated preparation of safety cases, each operator must provide the other operators with information concerning any circumstances at the operator's facility that could constitute a major incident hazard in relation to any of the other major hazard facilities. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) In complying with this regulation, the operator is not required to disclose information that may expose the major hazard facility to a major incident hazard in relation to the security of the major hazard facility. 563—Review The operator of a determined major hazard facility must review and as necessary revise the major hazard facility's safety case after any review is conducted under regulation 559. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— The operator of a licensed major hazard facility is required to notify the regulator of any change in relation to certain information about the licence (see regulation 588). Part 4—Licensed major hazard facilities—risk management Note— This Part applies to a major hazard facility that is licensed under Chapter 9 Part 7. 564—Identification of major incidents and major incident hazards (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must identify— (a) all major incidents that could occur in the course of the operation of the major hazard facility; and (b) all major incident hazards for the major hazard facility, including major incident hazards relating to the security of the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In complying with subregulation (1), the operator must have regard to any advice and recommendations given by— (a) the emergency service organisations with responsibility for the area in which the major hazard facility is located; and (b) any government department or agency with a regulatory role in relation to major hazard facilities. (3) The operator must document— (a) all identified major incidents and major incident hazards; and (b) the criteria and methods used in identifying the major incidents and major incident hazards; and (c) any external conditions under which the major incident hazards, including those relating to the security of the major hazard facility, might give rise to the major incidents. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) All major incidents and major incident hazards identified and documented under regulation 554 in relation to the major hazard facility are taken to have been identified and documented under this regulation. 565—Safety assessment The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must keep a copy of the safety assessment documented under regulation 555 as revised under Chapter 9 Part 3 and this Part at the facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 566—Control of risk (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must implement risk control measures that— (a) eliminate, so far as is reasonably practicable, the risk of a major incident occurring; or (b) if it is not reasonably practicable to eliminate that risk—minimise that risk so far as is reasonably practicable. Note— WHS Act—section 20 (see regulation 9). (2) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must implement risk control measures designed to minimise, in the event of a major incident occurring, its magnitude and the severity of its consequences to persons both on‑site and off‑site. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 567—Emergency plan (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must keep a copy of the major hazard facility's emergency plan prepared under regulation 557 as revised under Chapter 9 Part 3 and this Part at the facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The operator must test the emergency plan in accordance with the recommendations made by the emergency service organisations referred to in regulation 557(2). Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The operator must immediately implement the emergency plan if— (a) a major incident occurs in the course of the operation of the major hazard facility; or (b) an event occurs that could reasonably be expected to lead to a major incident. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The operator must notify the regulator and the emergency service organisations referred to in regulation 557(2) of the occurrence of an incident or event referred to in regulation 557(3) as soon as practicable after the incident or event occurs. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 568—Safety management system (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must implement the major hazard facility's safety management system established under regulation 558 as revised under Chapter 9 Part 3 and this Part. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The operator must use the safety management system as the primary means of— (a) ensuring the health and safety of workers engaged or caused to be engaged by the operator and workers whose activities in carrying out work are influenced or directed by the operator while the workers are at work in the operation of the major hazard facility; and (b) ensuring that the health and safety of other persons is not put at risk from work carried out as part of the operation of the major hazard facility. Note— The operator of a licensed major hazard facility is required to notify the regulator of any change in relation to certain information about the licence (see regulation 588). 569—Review of risk management (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must review and as necessary revise the following, in accordance with this regulation: (a) the safety assessment for the facility in order to ensure the adequacy of the control measures to be implemented by the operator; (b) the major hazard facility's emergency plan; (c) the major hazard facility's safety management system. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the operator must conduct a review and revision in the following circumstances: (a) a modification to the major hazard facility is proposed; (b) a control measure implemented under regulation 566 does not minimise the relevant risk so far as is reasonably practicable; Example— An effectiveness test indicates a deficiency in the control measure. (c) a new major hazard risk is identified; (d) the results of consultation by the operator under Chapter 9 Part 5 indicate that a review is necessary; (e) a health and safety representative requests a review under subregulation (5); (f) the regulator requires the review; (g) at least once every 5 years. (3) In reviewing and revising the safety assessment, the operator must comply with the requirements set out in regulation 555(2), (3) and (4). (4) In reviewing and revising the emergency plan, the operator must consult with the emergency service organisations referred to in regulation 557(2). (5) A health and safety representative for workers at a major hazard facility may request a review if the representative reasonably believes that— (a) a circumstance referred to in subregulation (2)(a), (b), (c) or (d) affects or may affect the health and safety of a member of the work group represented by the health and safety representative; and (b) the operator has not adequately conducted a review in response to the circumstance. 570—Safety case—review The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must review and as necessary revise the safety case after any review is conducted under regulation 569. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$3 600. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Note— The operator of a licensed major hazard facility is required to notify the regulator of any change in relation to certain information about the licence. See regulation 588. 571—Information for visitors The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must ensure that a person other than a worker who enters the major hazard facility is as soon as practicable— (a) informed about hazards at the major hazard facility that may affect that person; and (b) instructed in safety precautions the person should take; and (c) instructed in the actions the person should take if the emergency plan is implemented while the person is on‑site. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 572—Information for local community—general (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must ensure the provision of the following information to the local community and the local authority: (a) the name and location of the major hazard facility; (b) the name, position and contact details of a contact person from whom information may be obtained; (c) a general description of the major hazard facility's operations; (d) the means by which the local community will be informed of a major incident occurring; (e) the actions, as specified in the major hazard facility's emergency plan, that members of the local community should take if a major incident occurs; (f) a summary of the safety case for the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The operator must ensure that the information provided under subregulation (1) is— (a) set out and expressed in a way that is readily accessible and understandable to persons who are not familiar with the major hazard facility and its operations; and (b) reviewed and as necessary revised if a modification is made to the major hazard facility; and (c) sent in writing to any community or public library serving the local community. (3) In complying with subregulation (1), the operator is not required to disclose information that may expose the major hazard facility to a major incident hazard in relation to the security of the major hazard facility. (4) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility who receives a written request from a person who reasonably believes that the occurrence of a major incident at the major hazard facility may adversely affect his or her health or safety must give that person a copy of the information provided to the local community under this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 573—Information for local community—major incident (1) As soon as practicable after a major incident occurs, the operator of the major hazard facility must take all reasonable steps to provide the persons specified in subregulation (2) with information about the major incident, including— (a) a general description of the major incident; and (b) a description of the actions the operator has taken and proposes to take to prevent any recurrence of the major incident or the occurrence of a similar major incident; and (c) recommended actions that the local authority and members of the local community should take to eliminate or minimise risks to health and safety. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The persons to whom information about a major incident must be given are— (a) the local community, if a member of the local community was affected by the major incident; and (b) the local authority; and (c) any government department or agency with a regulatory role in relation to major hazard facilities. Part 5—Consultation and workers' safety role 574—Safety role for workers (1) The operator of a determined major hazard facility must, within the time specified in the safety case outline for the major hazard facility, implement a safety role for the workers at the major hazard facility that enables them to contribute to— (a) the identification of major incidents and major incident hazards under regulation 554; and (b) the consideration of control measures in the conduct of the safety assessment under regulation 555; and (c) the conduct of a review under regulation 559. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must implement a safety role for workers at the facility so as to enable them to contribute to the conduct of a review under regulation 569. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 575—Operator of major hazard facility must consult with workers (1) For the purposes of section 49(f) of the Act, the operator of a determined major hazard facility must consult with workers at the major hazard facility in relation to the following: (a) the preparation of the safety case outline for the major hazard facility; (b) the preparation, testing and implementation of the major hazard facility's emergency plan; (c) the establishment and implementation of the major hazard facility's safety management system; (d) the conduct of a review under regulation 559; (e) the implementation of the workers' safety role under regulation 574(1); (f) the preparation and review of the major hazard facility's safety case. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) For the purposes of section 49(f) of the Act, the operator of a licensed major hazard facility must consult with workers at the major hazard facility in relation to the following: (a) the testing and implementation of the major hazard facility's emergency plan; (b) the implementation of the major hazard facility's safety management system; (c) the conduct of a review under regulation 569; (d) the implementation of the workers' safety role under regulation 574(2); (e) a review of the major hazard facility's safety case. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$6 000. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— See section 49 of the Act for other consultation duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking. Part 6—Duties of workers at licensed major hazard facilities 576—Duties (1) While at work, a worker at a licensed major hazard facility must— (a) comply with any procedure imposed by the operator as a control measure in relation to major incidents, including the taking of corrective action under the procedure; and (b) comply with any procedure in the emergency plan, including the taking of corrective action under the plan; and (c) immediately inform the operator about any circumstance that the worker believes may cause a major incident; and (d) inform his or her supervisor about any corrective action taken by the worker. Maximum penalty: $3 600. (2) A worker is not required to comply with subregulation (1) if to do so would risk the health or safety of the worker or of another worker or other person. Part 7—Licensing of major hazard facilities Division 1—Licensing process 577—Who may apply for a licence Only an operator of a determined major hazard facility who is taken to be a suitable operator under regulation 543 may apply for a major hazard facility licence for that facility. 578—Application for major hazard facility licence (1) An application for a major hazard facility licence must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include the following information: (a) the operator's name; (b) whether or not the operator is a body corporate; (c) if the operator conducts the business or undertaking under a business name, that business name and a certificate or other written evidence of the registration of the business name; (d) any other evidence of the operator's identity required by the regulator; (e) the safety case prepared under Division 4 of Chapter 9 Part 3; (f) if the operator is an individual— (i) a declaration as to whether or not the operator has ever been convicted or found guilty of any offence under the Act or these regulations or under any corresponding WHS law; and (ii) details of any conviction or finding of guilt declared under subparagraph (i); and (iii) a declaration as to whether or not the operator has ever entered into an enforceable undertaking under the Act or under any corresponding WHS law; and (iv) details of any enforceable undertaking declared under subparagraph (iii); and (v) if the operator has previously been refused a major hazard facility licence under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration giving details of that refusal; and (vi) if the operator has previously held a major hazard facility licence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law, a declaration— (A) describing any condition imposed on that licence; and (B) stating whether or not that licence had been suspended or cancelled and, if so, whether or not the operator had been disqualified from applying for a major hazard facility licence; and (C) giving details of any suspension, cancellation or disqualification; and (vii) any additional information required by the regulator; (g) if the operator is a body corporate, the information referred to in paragraph (f) in relation to— (i) the operator; and (ii) each officer of the operator. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. 579—Additional information (1) If an application for a major hazard facility licence does not contain sufficient information to enable the regulator to make a decision whether or not to grant the licence, the regulator may ask the operator to provide additional information. (2) A request for additional information must— (a) specify the date (not being less than 28 days after the request) by which the additional information is to be given; and (b) be confirmed in writing. (3) If an operator does not provide the additional information by the date specified, the application is to be taken to have been withdrawn. (4) The regulator may make more than 1 request for additional information under this regulation. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. 580—Decision on application (1) Subject to this regulation, the regulator must grant a major hazard facility licence if satisfied about the matters referred to in subregulation (2). (2) The regulator must be satisfied about the following: (a) the application has been made in accordance with these regulations; (b) the safety case for the facility has been prepared in accordance with Division 3 of Chapter 9 Part 3; (c) the operator is able to operate the major hazard facility safely and competently; (d) the operator is able to comply with any conditions that will apply to the licence. (3) The regulator may refuse to grant a major hazard facility licence if it becomes aware of circumstances that satisfy it that the following persons are not suitable persons to exercise management or control over the major hazard facility: (a) if the operator is an individual—the operator; (b) if the operator is a body corporate—any officer of the body corporate. (4) The regulator must refuse to grant a major hazard facility licence if satisfied that the operator, in making the application, has— (a) given information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or (b) failed to give any material information that should have been given. (5) If the regulator decides to grant the licence, it must notify the operator within 14 days after making the decision. (6) If the regulator does not make a decision within 6 months after receiving the application or the additional information requested under regulation 579, the regulator is taken to have refused to grant the licence applied for. Note— A refusal to grant a major hazard facility licence (including under subregulation (6)) is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 581—Matters to be taken into account (1) For the purposes of regulation 580(3), if the operator is an individual, the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law of which the operator has been convicted or found guilty; (b) any enforceable undertaking the operator has entered into under the Act or under a corresponding WHS law; (c) in relation to a major hazard facility licence applied for or held by the operator under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the licence; and (ii) any condition imposed on the licence, if granted, and the reason the condition was imposed; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any licence; (d) the operator's record in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law; (e) any advice or recommendations received from any agency of the Crown with responsibility in relation to national security. (2) For the purposes of regulation 580(3), if the operator is a body corporate, the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the matters referred to in subregulation (1), in relation to— (a) the body corporate; and (b) each officer of the body corporate. 582—When decision is to be made The regulator must make a decision in relation to an application for a major hazard facility licence within 6 months after receiving the application or the additional information requested under regulation 579. 583—Refusal to grant major hazard facility licence—process (1) If the regulator proposes to refuse to grant a major hazard facility licence, the regulator must give a written notice to the operator— (a) informing the operator of the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the operator that the operator may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (2) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (1), the regulator must— (a) if the operator has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal to grant the licence—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the operator has made a submission—decide whether to grant or refuse to grant the licence; and (c) within 14 days after making the decision, give the operator written notice of the decision, including the reasons for the decision. 584—Conditions of licence (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on a major hazard facility licence. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the regulator may impose conditions in relation to 1 or more of the following matters: (a) additional control measures which must be implemented in relation to the carrying out of work or activities under the licence; (b) the recording or keeping of additional information; (c) the provision of additional information, training and instruction or the giving of specified information, training and instruction to additional persons or classes of persons; (d) the provision of additional information to the regulator; (e) if the operator is a person conducting a business or undertaking, the additional class of persons who may carry out work or activities on the operator's behalf. Notes— 1 A person must comply with the conditions of a licence (see section 45 of the Act). 2 A decision to impose a condition on a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 585—Duration of licence Subject to this Part, a major hazard facility licence takes effect on the day it is granted and, unless cancelled earlier, expires on the day determined by the regulator, which must be not more than 5 years after the day the licence was granted. 585A—Annual fee The operator of a major hazard facility must, in each year, on or before the anniversary of the date on which the licence for the facility was granted, pay to the regulator the relevant fee. 586—Licence document (1) If the regulator grants a major hazard facility licence, the regulator must issue to the operator a licence document in the form determined by the regulator. (2) The licence document must include the following: (a) the name of the operator; (b) if the operator conducts the business or undertaking under a business name—that business name; (c) the location of the major hazard facility; (d) any conditions imposed on the licence by the regulator; (e) the date on which the licence was granted; (f) the expiry date of the licence. 587—Licence document to be available (1) The operator of the major hazard facility must keep the licence document available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the licence document is not in the operator's possession because— (a) it has been returned to the regulator under regulation 593; and (b) the operator has applied for, but has not received, a replacement licence under regulation 594. Division 2—Amendment of licence and licence document 588—Changes to information (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must give the regulator written notice of any change to any material particular in any information given at any time by the operator to the regulator in relation to the licence within 14 days after the operator becomes aware of the change. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. Example— A change to the quantity of the hazardous chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility. (2) Subregulation (1) applies whether the information was given in the application for grant or renewal of the licence or in any other circumstance. 589—Amendment imposed by regulator (1) The regulator may, on its own initiative, amend a major hazard facility licence, including amending the licence to— (a) vary or delete a condition of the licence; or (b) impose a new condition on the licence. (2) If the regulator proposes to amend a licence, the regulator must give the operator a written notice— (a) setting out the proposed amendments and the reasons for it; and (b) advising the operator that the operator may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed amendment. (3) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (2), the regulator must— (a) if the operator has made a submission in relation to the proposed amendment—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the operator has made a submission—decide— (i) to make the proposed amendment; or (ii) not to make any amendment; or (iii) to make a different amendment that results from consideration of any submission made by the operator; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the operator written notice that— (i) sets out the amendment, if any; and (ii) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed amendment—sets out the regulator's reasons for making the amendment; and (iii) specifies the date (being not less than 28 days after the operator is given the notice) on which the amendment, if any, takes effect. Note— A decision to amend a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 590—Amendment on application by operator (1) The regulator, on application by the operator of a licensed major hazard facility, may amend the major hazard facility licence, including by amending the licence to vary or delete a condition of the licence. (2) If the regulator proposes to refuse to amend the licence, the regulator must give the operator a written notice— (a) informing the operator of the proposed refusal to amend the licence and the reasons for the proposed refusal; and (b) advising the operator that the operator may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice), make a submission to the regulator in relation to the proposed refusal. (3) After the date specified in a notice under subregulation (2), the regulator must— (a) if the operator has made a submission in relation to the proposed refusal—consider that submission; and (b) whether or not the operator has made a submission—decide— (i) to make the amendment applied for; or (ii) not to make any amendment; or (iii) to make a different amendment that results from consideration of any submission made by the operator; and (c) within 14 days after making that decision, give the operator written notice of the decision in accordance with this regulation. (4) If the regulator makes the amendment applied for, the notice under subregulation (3)(c) must specify the date (not being less than 28 days after the operator is given the decision notice) on which the amendment takes effect. (5) If the regulator refuses to make the amendment applied for or makes a different amendment, the notice under subregulation (3)(c) must— (a) if a submission was made in relation to the proposed refusal of the amendment applied for—set out the reasons for the regulator's decision; and (b) if the regulator makes a different amendment— (i) set out the amendment; and (ii) specify the date (being not less than 28 days after the operator is given the decision notice) on which the amendment takes effect. Note— A refusal to make the amendment applied for, or a decision to make a different amendment, is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 591—Minor corrections to major hazard facility licence The regulator may make minor amendments to a major hazard facility licence, including an amendment— (a) to correct an obvious error; or (b) to change an address; or (c) that does not impose a significant burden on the operator. 592—Regulator to give amended licence document to operator If the regulator amends a major hazard facility licence and considers that the licence document requires amendment, the regulator must give the operator an amended licence document within 14 days after making the decision to amend the licence. 593—Operator to return licence If a major hazard facility licence is amended, the operator of the licensed major hazard facility must return the licence document to the regulator for amendment at the written request of the regulator and within the time specified in the request. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 594—Replacement licence document (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility must give written notice to the regulator as soon as practicable if the licence document is lost, stolen or destroyed. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. (2) If a licence document for a licensed major hazard facility is lost, stolen or destroyed, the operator may apply to the regulator for a replacement document. Note— An operator is required to keep the licence document available for inspection (see regulation 587). (3) An application for a replacement licence document must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (4) The application must— (a) include a declaration describing the circumstances in which the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed; and Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (b) be accompanied by the relevant fee. (5) The regulator must issue a replacement licence document if satisfied that the original document was lost, stolen or destroyed. (6) If the regulator refuses to issue a replacement licence document, it must give the operator written notice of this decision, including the reasons for the decision, within 14 days after making the decision. Note— A refusal to issue a replacement licence document is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). Division 3—Renewal of major hazard facility licence 595—Regulator may renew licence The regulator may renew a major hazard facility licence on application by the operator. 596—Application for renewal (1) An application for renewal of a major hazard facility licence must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (2) The application must include a copy of the safety case for the major hazard facility as revised under regulation 570. Note— See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. (3) The application must be accompanied by the relevant fee. (4) The application must be made not less than 6 months before the licence to be renewed expires. 597—Licence continues in force until application is decided If the operator of a licensed major hazard facility applies under regulation 596 for the renewal of a major hazard facility licence, the licence is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this regulation, have expired until the operator is given notice of the decision on the application. 598—Provisions relating to renewal of licence For the purposes of this Division— (a) regulation 579 applies as if a reference in that regulation to an application for a licence were a reference to an application to renew a licence; and (b) regulations 580 (except subregulation (6)), 581, 584 and 585 apply as if a reference in those regulations to the grant of a licence were a reference to the renewal of a licence; and (c) regulation 583 applies as if a reference in that regulation to a refusal to grant a licence were a reference to a refusal to renew a licence. Note— A refusal to renew a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 599—Status of major hazard facility licence during review (1) This regulation applies if the regulator gives the operator written notice of its decision to refuse to renew the licence. (2) If the operator does not apply for an external review, the licence continues to have effect until the last of the following events: (a) the expiry of the licence; (b) the end of the period for applying for an external review. (3) If the operator applies for an external review, the licence continues to have effect until the earlier of the following events: (a) the operator withdraws the application for review; (b) SAET makes a decision on the review. (4) The licence continues to have effect under this regulation even if its expiry date passes. Division 4—Transfer of major hazard facility licence 600—Transfer of major hazard facility licence (1) The regulator, on the application of the operator of a major hazard facility, may transfer a major hazard facility licence to another person who is to become the operator of the major hazard facility, if satisfied that the proposed operator will achieve a standard of health and safety in the operation of the facility that is at least equivalent to the standard that the current operator has achieved. (2) An application must be— (a) made in the manner and form required by the regulator; and (b) accompanied by the relevant fee. (3) The regulator may transfer the licence subject to any conditions that the regulator considers necessary and appropriate to ensure that the new operator will be able to achieve a standard of health and safety in the operation of the facility that is at least equivalent to the standard achieved by the existing operator. (4) On the completion of the transfer, the person to whom the licence is transferred becomes the operator of the major hazard facility for the purposes of this Chapter. Notes— 1 A decision to refuse to transfer a major hazard facility licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 2 See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. Division 5—Suspension and cancellation of major hazard facility licence 601—Cancellation of major hazard facility licence—on operator's application (1) The operator of a licensed major hazard facility may apply to the regulator to cancel the licence. (2) An application must be— (a) made in the manner and form required by the regulator; and (b) accompanied by the relevant fee. (3) The regulator must conduct an inquiry into the inventory and operations of the facility before deciding on an application to cancel a licence. (4) The regulator must cancel a major hazard facility licence if— (a) the quantity of Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility does not exceed their threshold quantity; and (b) it is unlikely that a major incident will occur at the facility. (5) If the regulator, under this regulation, cancels the licence of a facility that was determined to be a major hazard facility under Chapter 9 Part 2, the regulator must revoke the determination. Notes— 1 A decision to refuse to cancel a licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 2 See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. 602—Suspension or cancellation of licence—on regulator's initiative (1) The regulator, on its own initiative, may suspend or cancel a major hazard facility licence if satisfied about 1 or more of the following: (a) the operator has failed to ensure that the facility is operated safely and competently; (b) the operator has failed to ensure compliance with a condition of the licence; (c) the operator, in the application for the grant or renewal of the licence or on request by the regulator for additional information— (i) gave information that was false or misleading in a material particular; or (ii) failed to give any material information that should have been given in that application or on that request; or (d) the operator has failed to pay the annual fee payable under regulation 585A as required by that regulation. (2) If the regulator suspends or cancels a major hazard facility licence, the regulator may disqualify the operator from applying for a further major hazard facility licence. Note— A decision to suspend a licence, to cancel a licence or to disqualify the operator from applying for a further licence is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 603—Matters to be taken into account (1) In making a decision under regulation 602, the regulator must have regard to the following: (a) any submissions made by the operator under regulation 604; (b) any advice received from a corresponding regulator; (c) any advice or recommendations received from any agency of the Crown with responsibility in relation to national security. (2) For the purposes of regulation 602(1)(a) and (b), the regulator must have regard to any relevant matter, including the following: (a) any offence under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law, of which the operator has been convicted or found guilty; (b) any enforceable undertaking that has been entered into by the operator under this Act or a corresponding WHS law; (c) in relation to a major hazard facility licence applied for or held by the operator under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law— (i) any refusal to grant the licence; and (ii) any condition imposed on the licence, if granted, and the reason the condition was imposed; and (iii) any suspension or cancellation of the licence, if granted, including any disqualification from applying for any licence; (d) the operator's record in relation to any matters arising under the Act or these regulations or under a corresponding WHS law. 604—Notice to and submissions by operator Before suspending or cancelling a major hazard facility licence, the regulator must give the operator a written notice of the proposed suspension or cancellation or disqualification— (a) outlining all relevant allegations, facts and circumstances known to the regulator; and (b) advising the operator that the operator may, by a specified date (being not less than 28 days after giving the notice) make a submission in relation to the proposed suspension or cancellation and any proposed disqualification. 605—Notice of decision (1) The regulator must give the operator of a major hazard facility written notice of a decision under regulation 602 to suspend or cancel the major hazard facility licence within 14 days after making the decision. (2) The notice must— (a) state that the licence is to be suspended or cancelled; and (b) if the licence is to be suspended, state— (i) when the suspension begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the suspension; and (iii) whether or not the operator is required to take any action before the suspension ends; and (iv) whether or not the operator is disqualified from applying for a further major hazard facility licence during the suspension; and (c) if the licence is to be cancelled, state— (i) when the cancellation takes effect; and (ii) the reasons for the cancellation; and (iii) whether or not the operator is disqualified from applying for a further major hazard facility licence; and (d) if the operator is disqualified from applying for a further major hazard facility licence, state— (i) when the disqualification begins and ends; and (ii) the reasons for the disqualification; and (iii) whether or not the operator is required to take any action before the disqualification ends; and (e) state when the licence document must be returned to the regulator. 606—Immediate suspension (1) The regulator may suspend a major hazard facility licence on a ground referred to in regulation 602 without giving notice under regulation 604 if satisfied that— (a) a person may be exposed to an imminent serious risk to his or her health or safety if the work carried out under the major hazard facility licence were not suspended; or (b) a corresponding regulator has suspended a major hazard facility licence held by the operator under this regulation as applying in the corresponding jurisdiction. (2) If the regulator decides to suspend a licence under this regulation— (a) the regulator must give the operator of the major hazard facility written notice of the suspension and the reasons for the suspension; and (b) the suspension of the licence takes effect on the giving of the notice. (3) The regulator must then— (a) give notice under regulation 604 within 14 days after giving the notice under subregulation (2); and (b) make its decision under regulation 602. (4) If the regulator does not give notice under subregulation (3), the suspension ends at the end of the 14 day period. (5) If the regulator gives notice under subregulation (3), the licence remains suspended until the decision is made under regulation 602. 607—Operator to return licence document An operator, on receiving a notice under regulation 605, must return the licence document to the regulator in accordance with the notice. Maximum penalty: (a) In the case of an individual—$1 250. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) In the case of an individual—$144. (b) In the case of a body corporate—$720. 608—Regulator to return licence document after suspension The regulator must return the licence document to the operator within 14 days after the suspension ends. Chapter 10—Mines Part 1—Preliminary 609—Meaning of mine (1) In this Chapter, a mine— (a) is a place that is— (i) a workplace at which mining operations are carried out; or (ii) a tourist mine; and (b) includes any fixtures, fittings, plant or structures at the place that are used or were formerly used for mining operations. (2) In this Chapter, a tourist mine means a workplace— (a) used only for tourism purposes but at which mining operations were formerly carried out; and (b) at which there is a principal mining hazard that was present at the workplace when the mining operations were carried out. (3) In this Chapter, an underground mine means that part of a mine that is beneath the surface of the earth and includes plant and structures that extend continuously from the surface into that part of the mine. (4) In this Chapter, underground mine does not include a part of a mine in which highwall mining is being carried out. (5) In subregulation (4), highwall mining means the underground extraction of coal carried out— (a) by remotely controlled plant that drives the extraction from a place in an open cut mine; and (b) without requiring any person to be present at any part of the extraction. 610—Meaning of mining operations (1) In this Chapter, mining operations are— (a) activities (mining activities) carried out for the purpose of— (i) extracting minerals from the ground or injecting minerals into the ground; or (ii) exploring for minerals by mechanical means that disturb the ground; and (b) activities carried out in connection with mining activities at a site, or at a site adjoining or in the vicinity of a site, at which the mining activities are carried out. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), the activities referred to in that subregulation include the following: (a) handling or storing extracted materials; (b) preparing or processing extracted materials; (c) constructing— (i) a site where a mining activity is carried out; or (ii) a site where an activity referred to in subregulation (1)(b) is carried out; (d) activities associated with decommissioning, making safe or closure of an extraction site or exploration site; (e) educational activities and tourist activities carried out at a site, or at a site adjoining or in the vicinity of a site, at which the mining activities are carried out. (3) In this Chapter, mining operations do not include the following: (a) an activity carried out in relation to the extraction of minerals on private land for the private and non‑commercial use of the owner of the land; (b) fossicking; (c) any activity where the extraction of minerals is incidental to the activity. Example— Civil works such as tunnelling to create a road. 611—Meaning of mineral In this Chapter, mineral— (a) means— (i) a naturally occurring element or inorganic compound; or (ii) coal, lignite, peat or oil shale; or (iii) rock, stone, gravel or sand; and (b) does not include— (i) water; or (ii) petroleum or any other substance, the recovery or production of which is governed by the Petroleum and Geothermal Energy Act 2000. 612—Meaning of principal mining hazard (1) In this Chapter, a principal mining hazard is any activity, process, procedure, plant, structure, substance, situation or other circumstance relating to the carrying out of mining operations that has a reasonable potential to result in multiple deaths in a single incident or a series of recurring incidents, in relation to any of the following: (a) ground or strata failure; (b) inundation or inrush of any substance; (c) mine shafts and winding operations; (d) roads or other vehicle operating areas; (e) air quality or dust or other airborne contaminants; (f) fire or explosion; (g) gas outbursts; (h) spontaneous combustion; (i) a hazard identified by the mine operator of a mine under regulation 34. (2) In this Chapter, a principal mining hazard at a mine that is a facility for the purposes of Chapter 9 does not include a major incident hazard. 613—Meaning of mine operator (1) In this Chapter, the mine operator of a mine is the mine holder of the mine, unless the mine holder appoints another person to be the mine operator. (2) The mine holder of a mine may appoint a person to be the mine operator only if— (a) the person is conducting a business or undertaking and is appointed in accordance with regulation 615 to carry out mining operations at the mine on behalf of the mine holder; and (b) the mine holder authorises the person to have management or control of the mine and to discharge the duties of a mine operator under the Act. (3) To avoid doubt, a reference in these regulations to a person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine includes a reference to the mine operator of the mine. Notes— 1 See section 5 of the Act for the meaning of person conducting a business or undertaking. 2 The mine operator may also have duties under sections 19, 20 and 21 of the Act. 614—Meaning of mine holder (1) In this Chapter, the mine holder of a mine is the person who is conducting a business or undertaking with control over a right or entitlement to carry out mining operations at the mine. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), a person is conducting a business or undertaking with control over a right or entitlement to carry out mining operations if— (a) a mining authorisation is required for carrying out those operations; and (b) the person holds the required mining authorisation. (3) To avoid doubt, a reference in these regulations to a person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine includes a reference to the mine holder of the mine. (4) In subregulation (2)— mining authorisation means— (a) a lease, claim, tenement, licence, permit or other authority authorising the carrying out of mining operations issued under the Mining Act 1971, the Opal Mining Act 1995 or another Act; or (b) a Special Tenement under the Roxby Downs (Indenture Ratification) Act 1982. Notes— 1 See section 5 of the Act for the meaning of person conducting a business or undertaking. 2 The mine holder may also have duties under section 20 of the Act as the person with management or control of the mine. 614A—Application of Chapter 9 (1) Chapter 9 (Major hazard facilities) applies in relation to a mine. (2) In this Chapter— major incident has the same meaning as in Chapter 9. 615—Appointment of mine operator (1) An appointment of a person to be the mine operator of a mine must— (a) be in writing; and (b) be made in the manner and form required by the regulator; and (c) include a signed statement that the person to be appointed as mine operator agrees to the appointment; and (d) specify— (i) the name and contact details of the mine operator, including postal and business addresses; and (ii) when the appointment takes effect; and (e) describe the location of the mine, including— (i) the boundaries of all extraction and exploration sites; and (ii) land title identification. (2) The mine holder must give the mine operator all relevant information held by or under the control of the mine holder that may reasonably be required by the mine operator to discharge the duties imposed on the mine operator under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Example— A mine survey plan prepared under regulation 675S. (3) The mine operator of a mine who ceases or intends to cease being the mine operator must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that all records the mine operator has kept under the Act are given to the mine holder for the mine, or the person who is to become the new mine operator, before the new mine operator commences in that role. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) In the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Example— A mine record kept under regulation 675Y. Note— The new mine operator will be required to keep the records for at least the remainder of the period that the Act or these regulations require the record to be kept. 615A—Duty to appoint mine manager (1) If— (a) mining operations are carried out at a mine; and (b) a person competent to be a mine manager in relation to the mine has not been appointed as mine manager for the mine, the mine operator is guilty of an offence. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) in the case of an individual—$432; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply in respect of mining operations carried out at a tourist mine, an exploration site or a precious stones field under the Opal Mining Act 1995. (3) For the purposes of subregulation (1), a mine operator who is competent to be a mine manager in relation to the mine may be appointed as mine manager for the mine. (4) A mine operator must not, unless permitted to do so in accordance with a determination by the regulator under subregulation (5)(b), appoint a mine manager in relation to a mine if the mine manager is also a mine manager in relation to another mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Expiation fee: (a) in the case of an individual—$432; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$2 160. (5) The regulator may, by notice in the Gazette— (a) determine requirements that must be satisfied by a person before they will be considered competent to be a mine manager in relation to a mine; and (b) determine that a mine operator is exempt from the prohibition in subregulation (4) in respect of a mine or mines specified in the notice. (6) A determination under subregulation (5) may be varied or revoked by subsequent notice in the Gazette. (7) A determination under subregulation (5)(a) may vary in its application to different mines, having regard to the number of workers and the type of operations carried out at a mine. (8) A mine operator must ensure that a record of— (a) the appointment of each mine manager in relation to a mine; and (b) any information provided to the mine operator by a mine manager in satisfaction of the requirements set out in subregulation (9), is kept for the duration of the person's appointment as mine manager and for at least 2 years after the person ceases to be a mine manager in relation to the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Expiation fee: (a) in the case of an individual—$144; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$720. (9) A person is competent to be a mine manager in relation to a mine for the purposes of this regulation if the person has satisfied the mine operator— (a) that the person— (i) has the relevant training, qualifications, experience, knowledge and skills to manage and supervise the mining operations carried out at the mine; and (ii) has knowledge of the requirements of the Act and these regulations (particularly this Chapter); and (iii) is capable of managing hazards at the mine; and (b) in relation to an underground mine with 20 or more workers—that the person— (i) holds a degree or diploma in mining engineering from a university or tertiary institution in Australia, or an equivalent institution as determined by the regulator; and (ii) satisfies the requirements of subregulation (10); and (c) that the person has met the requirements specified by the regulator in any applicable determination made under subregulation (5)(a). (10) A person satisfies the requirements of this subregulation if— (a) the person has at least 5 years' experience working at a mine; and (b) at least 3 of those years were spent working at an underground mine during which the person had— (i) 2 years' underground mining operational experience; and (ii) experience supervising underground mining operations. 616—Notification of mine operator to regulator (1) The mine holder of a mine must give notice to the regulator in accordance with this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) If the mine holder of a mine is the mine operator, the mine holder must give the regulator notice of this fact before mining operations commence at the mine. (3) If the mine holder of a mine is not the mine operator, the mine holder must give the regulator notice of the appointment of the mine operator of the mine. (4) A notice under subregulation (2) or (3) must— (a) be in writing; and (b) be made in the manner and form required by the regulator; and (c) describe the location of the mine, including— (i) the boundaries of all extraction and exploration sites; and (ii) land title identification. (5) A notice under subregulation (3) must be accompanied by a copy of the appointment document. (6) The mine holder must give written notice to the regulator of any change to the appointment of a mine operator or any termination of the appointment. (7) The mine holder must take all reasonable steps to ensure that a notice under subregulation (3) or (6) is given before the appointment or the change or termination takes effect. Part 2—Managing Risks Division 1—General requirements Subdivision 1—Control of risk 617—Managing risks to health and safety (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine must manage risks to health and safety associated with mining operations at the mine, in accordance with Chapter 3 Part 1. Note— WHS Act—sections 19, 20 and 21, as applicable (see regulation 9). (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine must ensure that a risk assessment is conducted by a competent person for the purposes of subregulation (1). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (3) In conducting a risk assessment, the person must have regard to— (a) the nature of the hazard; and (b) the likelihood of the hazard affecting the health or safety of a person; and (c) the severity of the potential health and safety consequences. (4) Nothing in subregulation (3) limits the operation of any other requirement to conduct a risk assessment under these regulations. Note— A number of specific risk control duties are linked to this regulation. See regulations 631, 635, 640, 641 and 646. 618—Review of control measures (1) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine must review and as necessary revise control measures implemented under regulation 617 in the following circumstances: (a) an audit of the effectiveness of the safety management system for the mine indicates a deficiency in a control measure; (b) a worker is moved from a hazard or assigned to different work in response to a recommendation contained in a health monitoring report provided under Part 3; (c) an incident referred to in regulation 675V occurs. Notes— (1) WHS Act—sections 19, 20 and 21, as applicable (see regulation 9). (2) This requirement is in addition to the requirement under regulation 38 (see regulation 33). (3) This regulation applies to a mine operator (see regulation 613(3)). (2) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that a control measure that is the subject of a request by a health and safety representative under regulation 38(4) is reviewed and as necessary revised, whether the request is made directly to the mine operator or notified to the mine operator under subregulation (3) by another person conducting a business or undertaking at the mine. Notes— (1) WHS Act—sections 19, 20 and 21, as applicable (see regulation 9). (2) This requirement is in addition to the requirement under regulation 38 (see regulation 33). (3) A person conducting a business or undertaking at the mine who is not the mine operator of the mine must immediately notify the mine operator of a request made to the person under regulation 38(4). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) A health and safety representative for workers at the mine may request a review of a control measure under regulation 38(4) as if the circumstances referred to in subregulation (1) were included in regulation 38(4)(a). 619—Record of certain reviews of control measures—mine operator (1) This regulation applies to a mine operator at a mine who has, under regulation 38, reviewed a control measure in response to— (a) a notifiable incident; or (b) an incident referred to in regulation 675V. (2) The mine operator at a mine must keep a record of the following: (a) the work health and safety issues arising from the incident; (b) recommendations arising from consideration of the incident; (c) a summary of any changes to the safety management system for the mine and any affected principal mining hazard management plan for the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 620—Record of certain reviews of control measures—other persons conducting a business or undertaking (1) This regulation applies to a person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine, other than the mine operator, who has, under regulation 38, reviewed a control measure in response to a notifiable incident. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking at a mine must keep a record of the following: (a) the work health and safety issues arising from the incident; (b) recommendations arising from consideration of the incident. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Subdivision 2—Safety management system 621—Duty to establish and implement safety management system (1) The mine operator of a mine must establish a safety management system for the mine, in accordance with this Subdivision. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must implement the safety management system for the mine, so far as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The safety management system must form part of any overall management system that is in place at the mine. (4) The safety management system must be designed to be used by the mine operator as the primary means of ensuring, so far as is reasonably practicable— (a) the health and safety of workers at the mine; and (b) that the health and safety of other persons is not put at risk from the mine or work carried out as part of mining operations. (5) Subject to subregulation (6), the safety management system must provide a comprehensive and integrated system for the management of all aspects of risks to health and safety in relation to the operation of the mine. (6) The safety management system must comply with subregulation (5) to the extent appropriate to the mine having regard to— (a) the nature, complexity and location of the mining operations; and (b) the risks associated with those operations. (7) The safety management system must be documented. (8) The mine operator of a mine that is also a determined major hazard facility is not required to establish a safety management system under regulation 558 for the operation of the major hazard facility if— (a) the mine operator has established a safety management system for the facility for the purposes of this regulation; and (b) the system deals with all matters required to be addressed by a safety management system under regulation 558 and includes all matters specified in Schedule 17; and (c) the system is readily accessible to persons who use it. 622—Content of safety management system (1) The safety management system document for a mine must set out the following: (a) the mine operator's health and safety policy, including broad aims in relation to the safe operation of the mine; (b) the arrangements for managing risks in accordance with regulation 617; Note— This includes all control measures implemented in accordance with specific requirements under this Chapter (see regulation 33). (c) the systems, procedures, plans and other control measures that will be used to control risks to health and safety associated with mining operations at the mine, including— (i) the principal mining hazard management plans for the mine prepared under Division 2; and (ii) in the case of an underground mine—the ventilation control plan and ventilation plan prepared for the mine under Division 4 Subdivision 2; (d) the management structure for the management of work health and safety at the mine, including— (i) arrangements for filling temporary and permanent vacancies; and (ii) requirements relating to acting positions in the structure; and (iii) the competency requirements for positions in the structure; (e) the arrangements in place, between any persons conducting a business or undertaking at the mine, for consultation, co‑operation and the co‑ordination of activities in relation to compliance with their duties under the Act; (f) if a contractor is working or likely to work at the mine—the control measures that will be used to control risks to health and safety associated with the contractor's work at the mine, including— (i) how the contractor's work management system will be integrated with the safety management system for the mine; and (ii) the process for assessing health and safety policies and procedures (including competency requirements) of the contractor and integrating them into the safety management system; and (iii) the arrangements for monitoring and evaluating compliance by the contractor with the health and safety requirements of the safety management system; (g) the emergency procedures and all other matters in the emergency plan for the mine prepared under Division 5; (h) the procedures and conditions under which persons at the mine or a part of the mine are to be withdrawn to a place of safety and to remain withdrawn as a precautionary measure where a risk to health and safety warrants that withdrawal; (i) the arrangements for the provision of information, training and instruction required under regulation 39; (j) the induction procedures for workers at the mine; (k) the arrangements in place for the supervision needed to protect workers and other persons at the mine from risks to their health and safety from work carried out at the mine; (l) the arrangements in place for health monitoring under Part 3; (m) the safety role for workers developed under Part 4; (n) the procedures for notifiable incident response and investigation at the mine; (o) the procedures for records management for the mine to ensure compliance with the Act; (p) the arrangements in place for all other monitoring and assessment and regular inspection of the working environment of the mine to be carried out for the purposes of the Act; (q) the performance management system under regulation 623; (r) the resources that will be applied for the effective implementation and use of the safety management system. (2) The safety management system document must— (a) contain a level of detail of the matters referred to in subregulation (1) that is appropriate to the mine having regard to— (i) the nature, complexity and location of the mining operations; and (ii) the risks associated with those operations; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, be set out and expressed in a way that is readily understandable by persons who use it. (3) If any matter referred to in subregulation (1) is addressed in a plan or other document prepared under these regulations for a mine, it is sufficient if the safety management system for the mine refers to the plan or document. 623—Performance standards and audit The safety management system for a mine must include the following: (a) performance standards for measuring the effectiveness of all aspects of the safety management system that— (i) are sufficiently detailed to show how the mine operator will ensure the effectiveness of the safety management system; and (ii) include steps to be taken to continually improve the safety management system; (b) the way in which the performance standards are to be met; (c) a system for auditing the effectiveness of the safety management system for the mine against the performance standards, including the methods, frequency and results of the audit process. 624—Maintenance The mine operator of a mine must maintain the safety management system for the mine so that the safety management system remains effective. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 625—Review (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that the safety management system for the mine is reviewed at least once every 3 years and as necessary revised to ensure it remains effective. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— Regular testing of the emergency plan is also required (see regulation 669). (2) In addition, if a risk control measure is revised under regulation 38 or 618, the mine operator must ensure that the safety management system for the mine is reviewed and as necessary revised in relation to all aspects of risk control addressed by the revised control measure. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In addition, if the mine is a determined major hazard facility, the mine operator for the mine must review and as necessary revise the safety management system if a circumstance referred to in regulation 559(2) exists. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case if an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Subdivision 3—Information to adjoining mine operators 626—Duty to provide information to mine operator of adjoining mine The mine operator of a mine must as soon as practicable, on request, provide to the mine operator of any adjoining mine any information that the mine operator has about conditions at the mine or any activities or proposed activities at the mine that could create a risk to the health and safety of persons at the adjoining mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Division 2—Principal mining hazard management plans 627—Identification of principal mining hazards and conduct of risk assessments (1) The mine operator of a mine must identify all principal mining hazards at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must conduct, in relation to each principal mining hazard identified, a risk assessment that involves a comprehensive and systematic investigation and analysis of all aspects of risk to health and safety associated with the principal mining hazard. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator, in conducting a risk assessment under subregulation (2), must— (a) use investigation and analysis methods that are appropriate to the principal mining hazard being considered; and (b) consider the principal mining hazard individually and also cumulatively with other hazards at the mine. 628—Preparation of principal mining hazard management plan (1) The mine operator of a mine must prepare a principal mining hazard management plan for each principal mining hazard at the mine, having regard to the matters set out in Schedule 19. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) A principal mining hazard management plan must— (a) provide for the management of all aspects of risk control in relation to the principal mining hazard; and (b) so far as is reasonably practicable, be set out and expressed in a way that is readily understandable by persons who use it. (3) A principal mining hazard management plan must— (a) describe the nature of the principal mining hazard to which the plan relates; and (b) describe how the principal mining hazard relates to other hazards at the mine; and (c) describe the analysis methods used in identifying the principal mining hazard to which the plan relates; and (d) include a record of the risk assessment conducted in relation to the principal mining hazard; and (e) describe the investigation and analysis methods used in determining the control measures to be implemented; and (f) describe all control measures to be implemented to manage risks to health and safety associated with the principal mining hazard; and (g) describe the arrangements in place for providing the information, training and instruction required by regulation 39 in relation to the principal mining hazard; and (h) refer to any design principles, engineering standards and technical standards relied on for control measures for the principal mining hazard; and (i) set out the reasons for adopting or rejecting all control measures considered. Note— A principal mining hazard management plan forms part of the safety management system for a mine (see regulation 622(1)(c)(i)). 629—Review (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that a principal mining hazard management plan is reviewed and as necessary revised if a risk control measure specified in the plan is revised under regulation 38 or 618. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— A principal mining hazard management plan is part of the safety management system for a mine (see regulation 622(1)(c)(i), which must be audited under regulation 623, maintained under regulation 624 and reviewed and as necessary revised under regulation 625). (2) If a principal mining hazard management plan is revised, the mine operator must record the revisions, including any revision of a risk assessment, in writing in the plan. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 3—Specific control measures—all mines Subdivision 1—Operational controls 630—Communication between outgoing and incoming shifts The mine operator of a mine at which more than 1 shift is worked each day must implement a system that ensures that, as soon as practicable at the commencement of each shift— (a) the supervisor of each outgoing shift provides a written report to the supervisor of the incoming shift, in relation to the state of the mine workings and plant and any other matters that relate to work health or safety; and (b) the supervisor of the incoming shift communicates the content of the report to the workers on the incoming shift. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— For requirements relating to communication with workers carrying out remote or isolated work at the mine, see regulation 48. 631—Movement of mobile plant (1) In complying with regulation 617, the mine operator of a mine must manage risks to health and safety associated with the movement of mobile plant at the mine. (2) In managing risks to health and safety associated with the movement of mobile plant at the mine, the mine operator must have regard to all relevant matters including the following: (a) the design, layout, construction and maintenance of all roads and other areas at the mine used by mobile plant; (b) interactions between mobile plant, especially between large and small mobile plant; (c) interactions between mobile plant and fixed plant or structures; (d) interactions between mobile plant and pedestrians (including the use of pre‑movement warnings for mobile plant in mine workings); (e) the operation of remotely controlled mobile plant; (f) the maintenance, testing and inspection of brakes, steering, lights and other safety features of the mobile plant. Note— Division 7 of Chapter 5 Part 1 includes requirements relating to mobile plant in all workplaces. 632—Prohibited uses The mine operator of a mine must take all reasonable steps to ensure an item or substance specified in Schedule 20, column 1 is not used in a place or for a purpose that is prohibited or restricted as set out in Schedule 20, column 2 opposite that item or substance. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 633—Closure, suspension or abandonment of mine (1) If the mine operator of a mine closes the mine, the mine operator must, at the time of the closure, ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the mine is safe, including by being secure against unauthorised entry by any person. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If mining operations at a mine are suspended, the mine operator must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the mine is safe, including by being secure against unauthorised entry by any person, during the period of suspension. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator of a mine must not abandon the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) In this regulation— mine operator of a mine includes the mine holder of the mine. Note— Section 16 of the Act provides for circumstances in which more than 1 person has the same duty. (5) This regulation does not apply in relation to a precious stones tenement under the Opal Mining Act 1995. 634—Minimum age to work in mine The mine operator of a mine must take all reasonable steps to ensure that— (a) a person under the age of 16 years is not engaged to carry out work in any open cut workings or in an underground mine; and (b) a person under the age of 18 years is not engaged to carry out work in an underground mine, unless the person is over the age of 16 years and is an apprentice or trainee under direct supervision in relation to the work. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Subdivision 2—Air quality and monitoring Note— General requirements for managing risks from airborne contaminants and hazardous atmospheres are set out in Divisions 7 and 8 of Chapter 3 Part 2 (all workplaces, including mines), and Division 4 of this Part sets out additional requirements relating to all underground mines (Subdivision 2). 635—Temperature and moisture content of air In complying with regulation 617, the mine operator of a mine must— (a) manage risks to health and safety associated with extremes of either or both the temperature and moisture content of air; and (b) if risks associated with extreme heat exist in an underground mine—implement control measures (including monitoring) to manage heat stress in places in the mine where— (i) persons work or travel; and (ii) the wet bulb temperature exceeds 27°C. 636—Ensuring exposure standards for dust not exceeded (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that no person at the mine is exposed to 8‑hour time‑weighted average atmospheric concentrations of airborne dust that exceed— (a) for respirable dust—3.0 mg per cubic metre of air; (b) for inhalable dust—10.0 mg per cubic metre of air. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants apply in relation to a concentration referred to in subregulation (1)(a) or (b) as if that concentration were an exposure standard referred to in those Standards. (3) In subregulation (1)— inhalable has the same meaning as in the Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants; respirable has the same meaning as in the Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants; 8-hour time-weighted average has the same meaning as in the Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants. 637—Monitoring exposure to airborne dust Regulation 50 applies to the mine operator of a mine in relation to airborne dust as if the concentration of airborne dust referred to in regulation 636(1)(a) or (b) were an exposure standard to which regulation 50 applies. 638—Air monitoring—use of devices The mine operator of a mine who uses air monitoring devices to comply with air monitoring requirements under regulation 50 and this Chapter must ensure that— (a) the devices used are suitable and effective having regard to— (i) the nature of the monitoring being carried out; and (ii) the substance being monitored; and (b) the devices are positioned to ensure that they work to best effect. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 639—Air monitoring—signage The mine operator of a mine, in complying with air monitoring requirements under regulation 50 and this Chapter, must ensure that signs are erected at the mine that explain— (a) the meaning of any warning produced by an air monitoring device; and (b) what persons must do in response to the warning. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. Subdivision 3—Fitness for work 640—Fatigue In complying with regulation 617, the mine operator of a mine must manage risks to health and safety associated with worker fatigue. 641—Alcohol and drugs (1) In complying with regulation 617, the mine operator of a mine must manage risks to health and safety associated with the consumption of alcohol by workers. (2) In complying with regulation 617, the mine operator of a mine must manage risks to health and safety associated with the use of drugs by workers. Division 4—Specific control measures—underground mines Subdivision 1—All underground mines—operational controls 642—Inrush hazards (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must implement a system for the mine that ensures— (a) the identification of all reasonably foreseeable inrush hazards at the mine; and (b) the determination of the presence and location of an inrush hazard by exploratory bore‑holes (including a way of sealing or otherwise controlling a bore‑hole to prevent inrush) or other exploratory methods; and (c) communication of the location of identified inrush hazards, including inrush hazards being approached, to all affected persons; and (d) the determination of whether or not an identified inrush hazard is a principal mining hazard; and (e) if an identified inrush hazard is a principal mining hazard—the identification, establishment and maintenance of an inrush control zone for the inrush hazard in accordance with this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) An inrush control zone must be located in the vicinity of the inrush hazard and— (a) if the exact location of the inrush hazard is known—extend at least 50 metres from the location of the inrush hazard; or (b) if the exact location of the inrush hazard is not known—extend any greater distance from the suspected location of the inrush hazard determined by a risk assessment conducted under regulation 627. (3) The mine operator must ensure, in relation to each inrush control zone, that control measures and procedures are implemented to control the risk of inrush. (4) The mine operator must ensure that an inrush control zone is not mined before— (a) control measures and procedures have been implemented under subregulation (3); and (b) the persons who are to work in the zone have been trained in relation to the implementation of those controls and procedures. (5) If an identified inrush hazard is not at an accessible place at the mine, it is sufficient to control the risk from inrush by— (a) providing adequate separation of solid rock between the mine workings and the assessed worst case position of the potential source of inrush; and (b) complying with the requirements of any applicable principal mining hazard management plan prepared for inrush hazards. (6) The mine operator of an underground mine, before connecting any underground mine workings at the mine to any other workings (including disused workings), must— (a) ensure that the other workings are inspected for water, gas and any other circumstance that may be an inrush hazard; and (b) if it is not possible to safely gain access to the workings to be connected—ensure that exploratory bore-holes or other exploratory methods are used to determine the location of the other workings. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 643—Connecting workings (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that, if 2 working faces are approaching each other at an underground mine, 1 of the workings is stopped, made safe and barricaded as soon as practicable before the distance separating the faces creates a risk to health or safety. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator of an underground mine, before connecting any underground mine workings to any other workings (including disused workings) must ensure that the other workings are inspected for water, gas, misfires, butts and any other circumstance that may be a risk to the health or safety of any person at the mine, other than a risk associated with an inrush hazard. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 644—Winding systems (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that every winding system used or that may be put into use at the mine includes the following: (a) ropes that will enable the shaft conveyance to bear the weight that can reasonably be expected to be borne by the shaft conveyance; (b) controls and limiting devices to prevent any shaft conveyance from being overwound or overrun or from travelling at an unsafe speed; (c) brakes that can bring the system to rest; (d) devices that detect slack rope or drum slip conditions, or tail rope malfunctions; (e) devices that cause the winder to stop when a condition or malfunction referred to in paragraph (d) is detected; (f) warning systems to alert persons at the mine to any emergency in a shaft; (g) remote monitoring of the functions of the system; (h) an effective means of communication— (i) between the surface and any shaft conveyance used for carrying persons; and (ii) between the point of control of the winder and the entry to every shaft that is in use. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must ensure that the winding system for each shaft that is in use or that may be put into use at the mine, and all components of the winding system, are tested at intervals that ensure the safe performance of the system. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator must ensure that energy lockout devices are fitted to all mechanical and electrical plant associated with any shaft at the mine, including any mechanical and electrical plant associated with the operation, maintenance or use of the shaft. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) In this regulation— winding system means a system where the winder is driven by a motor or engine of not less than 25kW. 645—Operation of shaft conveyances (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that material or plant being carried in a shaft conveyance— (a) does not protrude from the shaft conveyance, while it is moving, so as to contact a wall of the shaft or any thing in the shaft; and (b) is so secured to the shaft conveyance that it cannot leave the shaft conveyance except by being deliberately removed. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that persons being carried in a shaft conveyance are adequately protected from another shaft conveyance in the same shaft and from any material or plant being carried by the other shaft conveyance. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that, if a shaft conveyance that combines a cage and skip is used, material is not carried in the skip while persons are being carried in the cage. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that control measures are implemented to prevent a shaft conveyance from becoming detached or falling down the shaft. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (5) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that facilities for loading material or plant onto or into a shaft conveyance are designed and operated so as to prevent spillage into the shaft. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 646—Dust explosion (1) In complying with regulation 617, the mine operator of an underground mine must manage risks to health and safety associated with an explosion associated with dust at the mine. (2) In managing risks to health and safety associated with dust at the mine, the mine operator must implement control measures that, so far as is reasonably practicable— (a) minimise the generation of potentially explosive dusts; and (b) suppress, collect and remove potentially explosive airborne dusts; and (c) suppress any dust explosion; and (d) restrict the propagation of any dust explosion so that other areas are not affected. Subdivision 2—All underground mines—air quality and ventilation Note— General requirements for managing risks from airborne contaminants and hazardous atmospheres are set out in Division 3 Subdivision 2 of this Part (all mines, including underground mines) and in Divisions 7 and 8 of Chapter 3 Part 2 (all workplaces, including mines). 647—Air quality—airborne contaminants (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that the concentration of any airborne contaminant (including any asphyxiant or explosive gas) is as low as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must comply with subregulation (1)— (a) so far as is reasonably practicable, by suppression or the installation of a ventilation or exhaust extraction system; or (b) if this is not reasonably practicable, by some other suitable means. (3) This regulation does not limit regulations 49 and 636. 648—Air quality—minimum standards for ventilated air (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that the ventilation system for the mine provides air that is of sufficient volume, velocity and quality to ensure that the general body of air in the areas in which persons work or travel— (a) has a concentration of oxygen that is at least 19.5% under normal atmospheric pressure; and (b) has dust levels that— (i) are as low as is reasonably practicable; and (ii) do not exceed the relevant levels specified in regulation 636; and (c) if diesel engines are used underground—has a concentration of diesel particulates that is as low as is reasonably practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In addition to subregulation (1), the mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that the ventilation system for the mine provides air that is of sufficient quality to ensure that the general body of air in the areas in which persons work or travel has a level of contaminants that— (a) is as low as is reasonably practicable; and (b) does not exceed the exposure level for that contaminant specified in the relevant exposure standard referred to in regulation 49. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) This regulation does not apply in relation to an area of the mine— (a) that is required to be entered in an emergency or for a mines rescue purpose; and (b) in which all persons are wearing self‑contained breathing apparatus. 649—Air monitoring—air quality The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that air monitoring is carried out at the mine if the mine operator is not certain on reasonable grounds whether or not regulation 648 is being complied with. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 650—Requirements if air quality requirements and exposure standards not complied with (1) This regulation applies if monitoring reveals that in an underground mine— (a) the oxygen level specified in regulation 648(1)(a) is not met; or (b) a dust level referred to in regulation 648(1)(b)(ii) is exceeded; or (c) an exposure level referred to in regulation 648(2)(b) is exceeded. (2) The mine operator of an underground mine must immediately notify any affected workers or other persons at the mine of the relevant circumstance referred to in subregulation (1). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that the air quality at the mine is retested by a competent person as soon as practicable. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 651—Records of air monitoring (1) The mine operator of a mine must keep a record of air monitoring carried out at the mine under regulation 649. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (2) A record of air monitoring must include— (a) the results of the monitoring; and (b) details of the dates, location and frequency of the monitoring; and (c) the sampling method and equipment used. (3) A record of air monitoring carried out under regulation 649 must be kept for 7 years after the record is made. (4) The mine operator must keep a record of air monitoring available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (5) The mine operator must keep a record of air monitoring readily accessible to workers and other persons at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 652—Ventilation system—further requirements (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that the air supplied to the ventilation system at the mine is obtained from the purest source available. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must ensure the following: (a) ventilation circuits at the mine do not allow uncontrolled recirculation of air; (b) plant and structures that regulate airflow are maintained in good working order; (c) unventilated headings are not entered unless— (i) the purpose of entry is to establish ventilation; and (ii) adequate auxiliary ventilation is provided to the person entering the heading. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator must ensure that, in areas of the mine where persons work or travel, the ventilation system for the mine provides an average air velocity of at least 0.3 metres per second measured across the work or travel area. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 653—Monitoring and testing of ventilation system (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must monitor and test all aspects of the operation of the ventilation system at intervals that ensure that the system complies with regulations 648 and 652. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator of a mine must keep a record of all monitoring and testing of the ventilation system at the mine for at least 7 years. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (3) The mine operator must keep the record available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (4) The mine operator must keep the record readily accessible to workers and other persons at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 654—Duty to prepare ventilation control plan (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that a ventilation control plan is prepared to provide for the management of all aspects of ventilation at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The ventilation control plan must describe all control measures implemented in relation to ventilation at the mine. (3) Without limiting subregulation (2), the ventilation control plan must include a description of the following, if applicable to the mine: (a) the design and operation of the ventilation system, including the standards applying to the placement, operation, maintenance and monitoring of ventilation plant; (b) arrangements for inspecting, monitoring, maintaining and testing the ventilation system; (c) arrangements for managing risks to health and safety associated with potential inrush hazards and leakage into intake airways of atmospheric contaminants from goaf areas and abandoned sealed workings; (d) arrangements for managing risks to health and safety associated with intake air travelling across the face of a permanent seal at the mine; (e) arrangements for an alternate and independent way of operating the main ventilation fan system in the event of a loss of power supply to the main ventilation system; (f) arrangements for managing risks to health and safety associated with ignition sources, in the event that the ventilation system fails to adequately ventilate the mine; (g) procedures to ensure the health and safety of persons at the mine in the event of a total or partial ventilation failure for more than 30 consecutive minutes. 655—Review of ventilation control plan The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that a ventilation control plan is reviewed and as necessary revised if a risk control measure specified in the plan is revised under regulation 38 or 618. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 656—Ventilation plan (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that a plan of the ventilation system for the mine is prepared. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The ventilation plan must show— (a) the direction, course and volume of air currents; and (b) the position of all air doors, stoppings, fans, regulators and other ventilation plant and structures and ventilation monitoring devices at the mine. Subdivision 3—Underground coal mines Note— Subdivision 3 (comprising regulations 657 to 663) appears in some corresponding WHS laws but does not apply in this State because there is no underground coal mining activity. Division 5—Emergency management Note— The requirements of this Division are in addition to the requirements in relation to emergency plans under Division 4 of Chapter 3 Part 2. Subdivision 1—Emergency plans for all mines 664—Duty to prepare emergency plan (1) The mine operator of a mine must prepare an emergency plan for the mine in accordance with this Subdivision. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In addition to the matters required by regulation 43(1), the emergency plan must— (a) address all aspects of emergency response, including by ensuring— (i) the establishment of a system that enables all persons at the mine to be promptly located; and (ii) the provision of adequate rescue equipment; and (iii) that an adequate number of persons trained in the use of rescue equipment are available to respond effectively to the emergency if a person is working at the mine; and (iv) the provision of adequate patient transport if a person is working at a mine; and (b) include all matters specified in Schedule 22; and (c) so far as is reasonably practicable, be set out and expressed in a way that is readily understandable by persons who use it. (3) The emergency plan for a mine must comply with the matters in subregulation (2)(a) and (b) to the extent that the matters are applicable to the mine having regard to— (a) the nature, complexity and location of the mining operations; and (b) the risks associated with those operations. (4) The emergency plan for a mine must contain an appropriate level of detail about the matters set out in subregulation (2)(a) and (b) having regard to all relevant matters including— (a) the nature, complexity and location of the mining operations; and (b) the risks associated with those operations. (5) The mine operator of a mine that is also a determined major hazard facility is not required to prepare an emergency plan under regulation 557 for the major hazard facility if— (a) the mine operator has prepared an emergency plan for the facility for the purposes of this regulation; and (b) the plan addresses all matters required to be addressed in an emergency plan under regulation 557 and includes all matters specified in Schedule 16. 665—Consultation in preparation of emergency plan (1) In preparing an emergency plan, the mine operator must consult with— (a) the primary emergency services with responsibility for the area in which the mine is located; and (b) any other emergency service organisation, including any mines rescue organisation, that may be required to participate in implementing the emergency plan; and (c) in relation to the principal mining hazards that may cause or contribute to an incident that may adversely affect the health and safety of persons in the area surrounding the mine—the local authority for the local authority area in which the mine is located; and (d) if the mine is a major hazard facility—the local authority in relation to the off‑site health and safety consequences of a major incident occurring. (2) Subregulation (1)(a) does not apply to a mine operator who has on‑site emergency resources and capability or access to off‑site emergency resources and capability that are sufficient to address all aspects of emergency response at the mine. (3) The mine operator must ensure that the emergency plan addresses any recommendation made by the emergency service organisations consulted under subregulation (1) in relation to— (a) the testing of the emergency plan, including the way in which it will be tested, the frequency of testing and whether or not the emergency service organisations will participate in the testing; and (b) what incidents or events at the mine should be notified to the emergency service organisations. (4) The mine operator must have regard to any other recommendation or advice given by a person consulted under subregulation (1). 666—Implementation of emergency plan (1) The mine operator of a mine must immediately implement the emergency plan for the mine in the event of an emergency. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) If the mine is a determined major hazard facility, the mine operator must— (a) immediately implement the emergency plan if— (i) a major incident occurs in the course of the operation of the major hazard facility; or (ii) an event occurs that could reasonably be expected to lead to a major incident; and (b) notify the emergency service organisations consulted under regulation 665(1) of the occurrence of an incident or event referred to in regulation 665(3)(b). 667—Copies to be kept and provided (1) The mine operator of a mine must keep a copy of the emergency plan at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The mine operator must ensure that a copy of the emergency plan is available on request to any emergency service organisation consulted under regulation 665(1)(a). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 668—Resources for emergency plan The mine operator of a mine must ensure that— (a) all resources, including rescue equipment, specified in the emergency plan for the mine are provided in accordance with the plan; and (b) all equipment, including rescue equipment, specified in the emergency plan is maintained in good working order. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 669—Testing of emergency plan (1) The mine operator must test the emergency plan at least once a year having regard to the recommendations made by the emergency service organisations consulted under regulation 665 in preparing the plan. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In addition, if the mine is a determined major hazard facility, the mine operator must test the emergency plan in accordance with the recommendations made by the emergency service organisations referred to in regulation 665(1) before applying for a licence for the major hazard facility. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— More frequent testing may be required—see regulation 43. 670—Review (1) If a risk control measure is revised under regulation 38 or 618, the mine operator of the mine must ensure that the emergency plan is reviewed and as necessary revised in relation to all aspects of risk control addressed by the revised control measure. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) In addition, if the mine is a determined major hazard facility, the mine operator for the mine must review and as necessary revise the emergency plan if a circumstance referred to in regulation 559(2) exists. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case if an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) In reviewing and revising the emergency plan for the purposes of subregulation (2), the operator must consult with the emergency service organisations referred to in regulation 665. Subdivision 2—Underground mines 671—Emergency exits (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that the mine has at least 2 trafficable exits to the surface that comply with subregulations (2) and (3). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Each exit must— (a) be accessible from each level in the mine in which stoping operations are being carried out; and (b) allow for the passage of rescue persons and rescue equipment; and (c) be marked or signposted so that it can be readily located in an emergency; and (d) be maintained so that it remains effective. (3) The exits must be located so as to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that an incident or event that occurs in relation to 1 exit, that prevents the exit from being used for the purpose of escape from the mine, does not prevent persons from using the other exit to escape. (4) The mine operator of a mine is not required to comply with subregulation (1) in either of the following circumstances if the mine operator ensures that the mine has at least 1 trafficable exit to the surface that complies with subregulation (2): (a) a single entry drive or shaft is being developed; (b) the most distant area of the mine is no more than 250 metres from the mine entrance. 672—Safe escape and refuge (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must provide adequate means of communicating with all affected persons when the emergency plan for the mine is implemented. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Example— An alarm system. (2) The mine operator of an underground mine must provide adequate means of escape that enable persons to safely reach an exit or refuge, including through conditions of reduced visibility or irrespirable or unsafe atmospheres. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 673—Signage for refuges The mine operator of an underground mine that includes a refuge must ensure that signs are prominently displayed at the mine showing the location of each refuge. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 674—Self-rescuers (1) The mine operator of an underground mine must ensure that a person who is to go underground is provided with an appropriate self‑contained self‑rescuer if there is a risk of an irrespirable atmosphere in the underground mine (including during an emergency). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must ensure that the person is trained in the use of, and is able to use, the self‑rescuer provided. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675—Personal protective equipment in emergencies (1) This regulation applies in relation to a worker who is to enter an underground mine in an emergency in order to carry out first aid or rescue procedures. (2) The mine operator of the underground mine must ensure that oxygen or air supplied respiratory equipment is available for use by, and is provided to, the worker in an emergency in which— (a) the concentration of oxygen falls below a safe oxygen level; or (b) the atmosphere in the underground mine has a harmful concentration of an airborne contaminant; or (c) there is a serious risk of the atmosphere in the underground mine becoming affected in the way referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) while the worker is in the underground mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator must ensure that suitable personal protective equipment is available for use by, and is provided to, the worker in an emergency in which— (a) there has been an inundation or inrush of any substance in the underground mine; or (b) there is a serious risk of an inundation or inrush of any substance occurring while the worker is in the underground mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) The mine operator must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that a worker uses the personal protective equipment provided under subregulation (2) or (3). Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Division 6—Information, training and instruction 675A—Duty to inform workers about safety management system (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that, before a worker commences work at the mine— (a) the worker is given a summary of the safety management system for the mine that is relevant to the worker's work at the mine; and (b) the worker is informed of the right to see the documented safety management system for the mine prepared under regulation 621. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must ensure that the documented safety management system is available on request to a worker at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (3) The mine operator must ensure that— (a) a principal mining hazard management plan prepared under regulation 628 is readily accessible to a worker who is or may be exposed to the risks to which the plan relates; and (b) a ventilation control plan, prepared under regulation 654, is readily accessible to all workers at the mine; and (c) the emergency plan for the mine, prepared under regulation 664, is readily accessible to all workers at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (4) If the safety management system is revised under regulation 625, the mine operator must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that each worker at the mine is made aware of any revision that is relevant to work being carried out by the worker. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— In relation to the provision of information to workers, also see regulation 39 and section 19(3)(f) of the Act. 675B—Duty to provide information, training and instruction (1) This regulation applies in addition to regulation 39. (2) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that each worker at the mine is provided with suitable and adequate information, training and instruction in relation to the following: (a) all hazards associated with the work being carried out by the worker; (b) the implementation of risk control measures relating to the work being carried out by the worker, including controls in relation to fatigue, the consumption of alcohol and the use of drugs; (c) the content and implementation of the safety management system for the mine; (d) the emergency plan for the mine; (e) the safety role for workers implemented under regulation 675Q. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675C—Information for visitors The mine operator of a mine must ensure that a visitor who enters the mine with the authority of the mining operator is, as soon as practicable— (a) informed about risks associated with mining operations to which the visitor may be exposed at the mine; and (b) instructed in health and safety precautions the visitor should take at the mine; and (c) instructed in the actions the visitor should take if the emergency plan for the mine is implemented while the visitor is at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 675D—Review of information, training and instruction The mine operator of a mine must ensure that information, training and instruction provided to workers under regulations 675A and 675B or to visitors under regulation 675C are reviewed and as necessary revised to ensure that they remain relevant and effective. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675E—Record of training The mine operator of a mine must— (a) make a record of any training provided to a worker under regulation 675B; and (b) keep the record while the worker remains engaged at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Part 3—Health Monitoring 675F—Health monitoring of worker (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that health monitoring is provided in accordance with subregulation (2) to a worker at a mine engaged to carry out work at a mine if— (a) there is a significant risk of an adverse effect on the worker's health because of the worker's exposure to a hazard associated with mining; and (b) valid techniques are available to detect that effect on the worker's health. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The health monitoring must be carried out— (a) in accordance with this Part; and (b) at intervals determined by a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. 675G—Duty to inform of health monitoring The mine operator of a mine, who is required to ensure that health monitoring is provided to a worker, must give information about the health monitoring requirements to— (a) a person who is likely to be engaged to carry out work that triggers the requirement for health monitoring; and (b) a worker at the mine, before the worker commences work that triggers the requirement for health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 675H—Duty to ensure health monitoring is carried out or supervised by registered medical practitioner with experience (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the health monitoring of a worker under this Part is carried out by or under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner with experience in health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The mine operator must ensure that the worker is consulted in relation to the selection of the registered medical practitioner. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 675I—Duty to pay costs of health monitoring (1) The mine operator of a mine who engages a worker at the mine must pay all expenses relating to health monitoring referred to in this Part. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) If the mine operator of a mine has not engaged a worker at the mine, the mine operator must ensure that the person conducting the business or undertaking that engaged the worker pays all expenses relating to health monitoring. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 675J—Duty to provide registered medical practitioner with information The person conducting a business or undertaking who commissions health monitoring for a worker must provide the following information to the registered medical practitioner carrying out or supervising the health monitoring: (a) the name and address of the mine operator; (b) the name and date of birth of the worker; (c) the work that the worker is, or will be, carrying out that has triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (d) if the worker has started the work—how long the worker has been carrying out the work. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. 675K—Health monitoring report (1) Health monitoring must be documented in a health monitoring report in the form approved by the regulator. (2) The health monitoring report must include the following: (a) the name and date of birth of the worker; (b) the name and registration number of the registered medical practitioner; (c) the name and address of— (i) the mine operator; and (ii) the person conducting a business or undertaking who commissioned the health monitoring; (d) the date of the health monitoring; (e) an explanation of the results; (f) any advice indicating any adverse health effect resulting from exposure to a risk associated with mining operations; (g) any recommendation that the mine operator take remedial measures, including whether the worker can continue to carry out the type of work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring; (h) whether medical counselling is required for the worker in relation to the work that triggered the requirement for health monitoring. 675L—Person conducting business or undertaking to obtain health monitoring report The person conducting a business or undertaking who has commissioned health monitoring must take all reasonable steps to obtain a health monitoring report from the registered medical practitioner who carried out or supervised the monitoring as soon as practicable after the monitoring is carried out in relation to a worker. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675M—Person conducting business or undertaking to give health monitoring report to mine operator of mine A person conducting a business or undertaking must, on request, give a copy of the health monitoring report required to be kept under regulation 675P(1) to the mine operator of any mine at which the worker carries out work. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675N—Duty to give health monitoring report to worker The mine operator of a mine must take all reasonable steps to ensure that a worker at the mine who is provided with health monitoring is given a copy of the health monitoring report as soon as practicable after the monitoring is carried out. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675O—Duty to give health monitoring report to regulator The mine operator of a mine must take all reasonable steps to ensure that a copy of a health monitoring report relating to a worker at the mine is given to the regulator as soon as practicable if the report contains— (a) any advice indicating any adverse health effect resulting from exposure to a risk associated with mining operations; or (b) a recommendation that the mine operator should move the worker from a hazard or assign the worker to different work. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675P—Health monitoring reports kept as records (1) The person conducting a business or undertaking that engaged a worker at the mine must ensure that a health monitoring report in relation to the worker is kept as a confidential record. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (1a) The person must ensure that a health monitoring report in relation to a worker is kept for at least— (a) for hazards known to have a cumulative or delayed health effect—30 years after the record is made; or (b) for other hazards—7 years after the record is made. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking who obtains a health monitoring report in relation to a worker under this Part must not disclose the report to another person without the worker's written consent. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (3) Subregulation (2) does not apply if the report is disclosed to— (a) a mine operator to whom a copy report is given under regulation 675M; or (b) the regulator under regulation 675O; or (c) a new mine operator to whom all records are given under regulation 615(3); or (d) a person who must keep the report confidential under a duty of professional confidentiality; or (e) a health and safety representative in accordance with section 71(2) of the Act. (4) The person conducting a business or undertaking that engaged a worker at the mine must ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that any health monitoring report kept in relation to a worker under subregulation (1) is given to the worker if the business or undertaking at the mine is to be wound up or otherwise cease to exist. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. Part 4—Consultation and Workers' Safety Role 675Q—Safety role for workers in relation to principal mining hazards The mine operator of a mine must implement a safety role for the workers at the mine that enables them to contribute to— (a) the identification under regulation 627 of principal mining hazards that are relevant to the work that the workers are or will be carrying out; and (b) the consideration of control measures for risks associated with principal mining hazards at the mine; and (c) the conduct of a review under regulation 629. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. 675R—Mine operator must consult with workers For the purposes of section 49(f) of the Act, the mine operator of a mine must consult with workers at the mine in relation to the following: (a) the development, implementation and review of the safety management system for the mine; (b) conducting risk assessments for principal mining hazard management plans; (c) preparing, testing and reviewing the emergency plan for the mine; (d) the implementation of the workers' safety role under regulation 675Q; (e) developing and implementing strategies to protect persons at the mine from any risk to health and safety arising from the following: (i) the consumption of alcohol or use of drugs by any person; (ii) worker fatigue. Note— See section 49 of the Act for other consultation duties of a person conducting a business or undertaking. Part 5—Mine Survey Plans 675S—Survey plan of mine must be prepared (1) The mine operator of a mine must ensure that a detailed survey plan of the mine is prepared by a competent person. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The plan must (unless it relates to a precious stones field under the Opal Mining Act 1995) reference the mine to— (a) — (i) in the case of a plan prepared before 24 September 2022—GDA94 or GDA2020; or (ii) in any other case—GDA2020; and (b) the Australian Height Datum. (3) The plan must show the following (if present at the mine): (a) the workings of the mine, including disused workings and bore holes; (b) the location of electrical installations; (c) the location of telephones and other fixed plant associated with the radio and telecommunications systems; (d) water dams and tailings dams; (e) natural features surrounding the mine; (f) places for the storage of hydrocarbons or explosives; (g) points of entry and exit, including emergency exits; (h) refuges (in an underground mine). (4) In complying with subregulation (1), the mine operator of a mine must take all reasonable steps to obtain historical mine surveys of the mine to ensure the accuracy of the mine survey plan. (5) In subregulation (2)— Australian Height Datum means the Australian Height Datum described in the Division of National Mapping Technical Report No.12, The Adjustment of the Australian Levelling Survey, 1970‑71 (2nd edition, 1975); Geocentric Datum of Australia 1994 or GDA94 means the Geocentric Datum of Australia as defined in Commonwealth of Australia Gazette No. 35 of 6 September 1995 (GDA94 geocentric data set); Geocentric Datum of Australia 2020 or GDA2020 has the same meaning as in the National Measurement (Recognized-Value Standard of Measurement of Position) Determination 2017 made under section 8A of the National Measurement Act 1960 of the Commonwealth. Note— Regulation 656 requires the mine operator of an underground mine to prepare a plan of the ventilation system for the mine. 675T—Review of survey plan (1) The mine operator of a mine must review and as necessary revise the mine survey plan— (a) if it no longer accurately reflects the workings that have been carried out at the mine or the workings that are proposed to be carried out at the mine; or (b) if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the mine survey plan is not accurate; or (c) at least once every 12 months. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) Subregulation (1)(c) does not apply if the mining operations at the mine have been discontinued or suspended for more than 12 months. 675U—Survey plan to be available (1) The mine operator of a mine must keep the current mine survey plan and all previous versions of the plan available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The mine operator of a mine must make the current mine survey plan available on request to workers at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Part 6—Provision of information to regulator Notes— (1) This Part applies in addition to Part 3 of the Act. (2) Unless provided otherwise, incidents referred to in this Part include notifiable incidents (see section 35 of the Act). 675V—Duty to notify regulator of certain incidents (1) The mine operator of a mine must take all reasonable steps to ensure that the regulator is notified as soon as possible after becoming aware of an incident arising out of the carrying out of mining operations at the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The notification must— (a) be in writing; and Example— The notice may be given by fax, email or other electronic means. (b) be in a form required by the regulator; and (c) in the case of an incident that results in an illness or injury, contain the details specified in Schedule 23. (3) In this regulation— high potential incident means an incident or event referred to in section 37(a) to (l) of the Act that would have been a dangerous incident under section 37 if a person were in the vicinity at the time when the incident or event occurred and in usual circumstances a person could have been in that vicinity at that time; incident means an incident (other than a notifiable incident) that— (a) results in illness or injury that requires medical treatment within the meaning of item 13.2 of Schedule 24; or (b) is a high potential incident. Note— This regulation does not apply in relation to notifiable incidents about which notification must be given under Part 3 of the Act. 675W—Quarterly reports (1) The mine operator of a mine must give the regulator a quarterly work health and safety report in accordance with this regulation. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. (2) The report must— (a) be given at the times or intervals (including annually) and in the manner and form required by the regulator; and (b) contain the information specified in Schedule 24. Note— This regulation applies in relation to notifiable incidents and incidents within the meaning of regulation 675V. (3) The mine operator of a mine is not required to give the regulator a report under this regulation before 1 January 2015. 675X—Duty to notify mine operator of notifiable incidents A person who conducts a business or undertaking at a mine must ensure that the mine operator is notified as soon as practicable of any incident that has been notified to the regulator under section 38 of the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$6 000; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$30 000. Note— Section 38 of the Act requires a person who conducts a business or undertaking to ensure that the regulator is notified about notifiable incidents. Part 7—Mine Record 675Y—Mine record (1) The mine operator of a mine must keep a mine record for the mine. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$3 600; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$18 000. (2) The mine record must contain— (a) a record of any notice issued in relation to the mine under Part 10 of the Act; and (b) a copy of any provisional improvement notice issued in relation to the mine under Part 5 Division 7 of the Act; and (c) a record of every incident notified to the regulator under Part 3 of the Act or under regulation 675V; and (d) a summary of all records kept under regulations 619 and 620; and (e) each report under regulation 630 by a shift supervisor at the mine. 675Z—Mine record must be kept and available (1) The mine operator of a mine must keep a record that forms part of the mine record for 7 years from the date the record was made. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (2) The mine operator must keep the mine record for the mine available for inspection under the Act. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (3) The mine operator must ensure that the mine record for the mine is available to workers at the mine on request. Maximum penalty: (a) in the case of an individual—$1 250; (b) in the case of a body corporate—$6 000. (4) For the purposes of subregulation (3), the mine operator is only required to make available a summary of a record referred to in regulation 675Y(2)(c). (5) Subregulation (3) does not require or permit the mine operator to provide personal or medical information in relation to a worker without the worker's written consent unless the information is in a form that— (a) does not identify the worker; and (b) could not reasonably be expected to lead to the identification of the worker. Chapter 11—General Part 1—Review of decisions under these regulations Division 1—Reviewable decisions 676—Which decisions under these regulations are reviewable (1) The following table sets out: (a) decisions made under these regulations that are reviewable under this Part (reviewable decisions); and (b) who is eligible to apply for review of a reviewable decision (the eligible person). Item|Regulation under which reviewable decision is made|Eligible person in relation to reviewable decision| |High risk work licences|| 1|89—Refusal to grant licence|Applicant| 2|91—Refusal to grant licence|Applicant| 2A|91A—Imposition of condition when granting licence|Applicant| 2B|91A—Imposition of condition when renewing licence|Applicant| 3|98—Refusal to issue replacement licence document|Licence holder| 4|104—Refusal to renew licence|Applicant| 5|106—Suspension of licence|Licence holder| 6|106—Cancellation of licence|Licence holder| 7|106—Disqualification of licence holder from applying for another licence|Licence holder| 7A|106—Variation of licence conditions|Licence holder| |Accreditation of assessors|| 8|118—Refusal to grant accreditation|Applicant| ||An RTO that engages the applicant| 9|120—Refusal to grant accreditation|Applicant| ||An RTO that engages the applicant| 10|121—Imposition of a condition when granting accreditation|Applicant| ||An RTO that engages the applicant| 11|121—Imposition of a condition when renewing accreditation|Applicant| ||An RTO that engages the applicant| 12|127—Refusal to issue replacement accreditation document|Accredited assessor| ||An RTO that engages the accredited assessor| 13|132—Refusal to renew accreditation|Applicant| ||An RTO that engages the applicant| 14|133—Suspension of accreditation|Accredited assessor| ||An RTO that engages the accredited assessor| 15|133—Cancellation of accreditation|Accredited assessor| ||An RTO that engages the accredited assessor| 16|133—Disqualification of assessor from applying for a further accreditation|Accredited assessor| ||An RTO that engages the accredited assessor| |Registration of plant designs|| 17|256—Refusal to register plant design|Applicant| 18|257—Refusal to register plant design|Applicant| 19|258—Imposition of a condition when granting registration of plant design|Applicant| |Registration of plant|| 20|269—Refusal to register item of plant|Applicant| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 21|270—Refusal to register item of plant|Applicant| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 22|271—Imposition of a condition when granting registration of item of plant|Applicant| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 23|271—Imposition of a condition when renewing registration of item of plant|Registration holder| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 24|279—Refusal to renew registration of item of plant|Registration holder| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 25|283—Amendment of registration, on regulator's initiative|Registration holder| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 26|284—Refusal to amend registration on application (or a decision to make a different amendment)|Registration holder| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 27|288—Refusal to issue replacement registration document|Registration holder| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| 27A|288B—Decision to cancel registration|Registration holder| ||The person with management or control of the item of plant| |General construction induction training|| 28|322—Refusal to issue general construction induction training card|Applicant| 29|322—Refusal to issue replacement general construction induction training card|Card holder| 30|323—Cancellation of general construction induction training card|Card holder| |Hazardous chemicals and lead|| 31|384—Refusal to grant authorisation to use, handle or store a prohibited or restricted carcinogen|Applicant| 32|386—Cancellation of authorisation to use, handle or store a prohibited or restricted carcinogen|Authorisation holder| 33|393—Deciding a process to be a lead process|A person conducting a business or undertaking that carries out the lead process| ||A worker whose interests are affected by the decision| 34|407—Determining a different frequency for biological monitoring of workers at a workplace, or a class of workers, carrying out lead risk work|A person conducting a business or undertaking that carries out lead risk work| ||A worker whose interests are affected by the decision| |Asbestos removal licences and asbestos assessor licences|| 35|497—Refusal to grant licence|Applicant| 36|501—Refusal to grant licence|Applicant| 37|502—Imposition of a condition when granting licence|Applicant| 38|502—Imposition of a condition when renewing licence|Applicant| 39|508—Amendment of licence, on regulator's initiative|Licence holder| 40|509—Refusal to amend licence on application (or a decision to make a different amendment)|Licence holder| 41|513—Refusal to issue replacement licence document|Licence holder| 42|517—Refusal to renew licence|Applicant| 43|520—Suspension of licence|Licence holder| 44|520—Cancellation of licence|Licence holder| 45|520—Disqualification of licence holder from applying for another licence|Licence holder| |Major hazard facilities|| |Determination of facility to be major hazard facility|| 46|541—Determination of facility to be a major hazard facility, on making inquiry|Operator of facility| 47|541—Decision not to determine proposed facility to be a major hazard facility|Operator of facility| 48|542—Determination of major hazard facility|Operator of facility| 49|543—Determination of suitability of operator|Operator of facility| 50|544—Imposition of a condition on a determination of a major hazard facility|Operator of facility| |Licensing of major hazard facility|| 51|580—Refusal to grant licence|Operator of facility| 52|584—Imposition of a condition when granting licence|Operator of facility| 53|584—Imposition of a condition when renewing licence|Operator of facility| 54|589—Amendment of licence, on regulator's initiative|Operator of facility| 55|590—Refusal to amend licence, on application (or a decision to make a different amendment)|Operator of facility| 56|594—Refusal to issue replacement licence document|Operator of facility| 57|598—Refusal to renew licence|Operator of facility| 58|600—Refusal to transfer licence, on application|Operator of facility| ||Proposed operator of facility| 59|601—Refusal to cancel licence, on application|Operator of facility| 60|602—Suspension of licence|Operator of facility| 61|602—Cancellation of licence|Operator of facility| 62|602—Disqualification of licence holder from applying for another licence|Operator of facility| |Exemptions|| 63|684—Refusal to exempt person (or a class of persons) from compliance with any of these regulations|Applicant| 64|686—Refusal to exempt person from requirement to hold a high risk work licence|Applicant| 65|688—Refusal to exempt operator of MHF from compliance with any of these regulations, on application|Operator of facility| 65A|689A(1)—Refusal to exempt a particular type of engineered stone from regulation 529D|Applicant| 66|691—Imposing condition on an exemption granted on application under Part 11.2|Applicant| 67|696—Refusal to grant exemption|Applicant| 68|697—Amendment of an exemption granted on application under Chapter 11 Part 2|Applicant| 69|697—Cancellation of an exemption granted on application under Chapter 11 Part 2|Applicant| (2) Unless the contrary intention appears, a reference in this Part to a decision includes a reference to— (a) making, suspending, revoking or refusing to make an order, determination or decision; or (b) giving, suspending, revoking or refusing to give a direction, approval, consent or permission; or (c) granting, issuing, amending, renewing, suspending, cancelling, revoking or refusing to grant, issue, amend or renew an authorisation; or (d) imposing or varying a condition; or (e) making a declaration, demand or requirement; or (f) retaining, or refusing to deliver up, a thing; or (g) doing or refusing to do any other act or thing; or (h) being taken to refuse or do any act or thing. Division 2—Internal review 677—Application This Division does not apply to a reviewable decision made under— (a) Chapter 9; or (b) Chapter 11 Part 2. 678—Application for internal review (1) Subject to subregulation (2), an eligible person in relation to a reviewable decision may apply to the regulator for review (an internal review) of the decision within— (a) 28 days after the day on which the decision first came to the eligible person's notice; or (b) any longer time the regulator allows. (2) An eligible person in relation to a reviewable decision under regulation 89(5), 118(5), 256(5), 269(5) or 497(5) may apply to the regulator for review (an internal review) of the decision within— (a) 28 days after the day on which the 120 day period referred to in that provision; or (b) any longer time the regulator allows. (3) The application must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. 679—Internal reviewer (1) The regulator may appoint a person or body to review decisions on applications under this Division. (2) The person who made the reviewable decision cannot be an internal reviewer in relation to that decision. 680—Decision of internal reviewer (1) The internal reviewer must review the reviewable decision and make a decision as soon as practicable and within 14 days after the application for internal review, or the additional information requested under subregulation (3), is received. (2) The decision may be— (a) to confirm or vary the reviewable decision; or (b) to set aside the reviewable decision and substitute another decision that the internal reviewer considers appropriate. (3) The internal reviewer may ask the applicant to provide additional information in support of the application for review. (4) The applicant must provide the additional information within the time (being not less than 7 days) specified by the internal reviewer in the request for information. (5) If the applicant does not provide the additional information within the required time, the reviewable decision is taken to have been confirmed by the internal reviewer at the end of that time. (6) If the reviewable decision is not varied or set aside within the 14 day period referred to in subregulation (1), the reviewable decision is taken to have been confirmed by the internal reviewer. 681—Decision on internal review Within 14 days of making the decision on the internal review, the internal reviewer must give the applicant written notice of— (a) the decision on the internal review; and (b) the reasons for the decision. 682—Internal review—reviewable decision continues Subject to any provision to the contrary in relation to a particular decision, an application for an internal review does not affect the operation of the reviewable decision or prevent the taking of any lawful action to implement or enforce the decision. Division 3—External review 683—Application for external review (1) An eligible person may apply to SAET for review (an external review) of— (a) a reviewable decision made by the regulator under— (i) Chapter 9; or (ii) Chapter 11 Part 2; or (b) a decision made, or taken to have been made, on an internal review. (2) The application must be made within— (a) 28 days after the day on which the decision first came to the eligible person's notice; or (b) any longer time as SAET may allow. Part 2—Exemptions Division 1—General 684—General power to grant exemptions (1) The regulator may exempt a person or class of persons from compliance with any of these regulations. (2) The exemption may be granted on the regulator's own initiative or on the written application of 1 or more persons. (3) This regulation is subject to the limitations set out in this Part. (4) This regulation does not apply to an exemption from— (a) a provision requiring a person to hold a high risk work licence; or (b) a provision of Chapter 9 relating to a major hazard facility or proposed major hazard facility; or (c) regulation 529D in relation to exempting a type of engineered stone from that regulation. Note— A decision to refuse to grant an exemption is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 685—Matters to be considered in granting exemptions In deciding whether or not to grant an exemption under regulation 684 the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including the following: (a) whether the granting of the exemption will result in a standard of health and safety at the relevant workplace, or in relation to the relevant undertaking, that is at least equivalent to the standard that would be achieved by compliance with the relevant provision or provisions; (b) whether the requirements of paragraph (a) will be met if the regulator imposes certain conditions in granting the exemption and those conditions are complied with; (c) whether exceptional circumstances justify the grant of the exemption; (d) if the proposed exemption relates to a particular thing—whether the regulator is satisfied that the risk associated with the thing is not significant if the exemption is granted; (e) whether the applicant has carried out consultation in relation to the proposed exemption in accordance with Divisions 1 and 2 of Part 5 of the Act. Division 2—High risk work licences 686—High risk work licence—exemption (1) The regulator may exempt a person or class of persons from compliance with a provision of these regulations requiring the person or class of persons to hold a high risk work licence. (2) The exemption may be granted on the written application of any person concerned. Note— A decision to refuse to grant an exemption is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 687—High risk work licence—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters (1) The regulator must not grant an exemption under regulation 686 unless satisfied that granting the exemption will result in a standard of health and safety that is at least equivalent to the standard that would have been achieved without that exemption. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including whether or not— (a) the obtaining of the high risk work licence would be impractical; and (b) the competencies of the person to be exempted exceed those required for a high risk work licence; and (c) any plant used by the person can be modified in a way that reduces the risk associated with using that plant. Division 3—Major hazard facilities 688—Major hazard facility—exemption (1) The regulator may exempt the operator of a major hazard facility or proposed major hazard facility from compliance with any provision of these regulations relating to that facility. (2) The exemption may be granted on the written application of the operator of the major hazard facility or proposed major hazard facility. Note— A decision to refuse to grant an exemption is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 689—Major hazard facility—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters (1) The regulator must not grant an exemption under regulation 688 unless satisfied that— (a) 1 or more Schedule 15 chemicals are present or likely to be present at the facility; and (b) the quantity of the Schedule 15 chemicals exceeds the threshold quantity of the Schedule 15 chemicals periodically because they are solely the subject of intermediate temporary storage; and (c) the Schedule 15 chemical or chemicals are in 1 or more containers with the capacity of each container being not more than a total of 500 kilograms; and (d) granting the exemption will result in a standard of health and safety in relation to the operation of the facility that is at least equivalent to the standard that would be achieved by compliance with the relevant provision or provisions. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(d), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including whether or not— (a) the applicant is complying with the Act and these regulations; and (b) the applicant has processes and procedures in place which will keep the quantity of the Schedule 15 chemical or chemicals present or likely to be present at or below the threshold quantity for the Schedule 15 chemical or chemicals as often as practicable; and (c) the applicant has implemented adequate control measures to minimise the risk of a major incident occurring. Division 3A—Engineered stone 689A—Engineered stone—exemption (1) The regulator may exempt a type of engineered stone from regulation 529D. (2) A person conducting a business or undertaking is exempt from compliance with regulation 529D if the work involves a type of engineered stone that is the subject of an exemption granted under— (a) subregulation (1); or (b) a corresponding WHS law that is equivalent to subregulation (1). Note— A decision to refuse to grant an exemption is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 689B—Engineered stone—application for exemption (1) A person with an interest in having an exemption granted under regulation 689A(1) may apply to the regulator for an exemption. (2) However, before the person can apply under subregulation (1), the person must give each social partner SWA member— (a) a written notice stating— (i) the person intends to make the application; and (ii) the social partner SWA member may give the person submissions for the regulator about the application within the reasonable period stated in the notice; and (iii) the person must provide the social partner SWA member's submissions to the regulator as part of the person's application; and (b) a copy of the proposed application for the exemption. (3) The person's application must be— (a) in writing; and (b) accompanied by the written notice the person gives each social partner SWA member under subregulation (2); and (c) accompanied by any submissions received by the person from social partner SWA members under subregulation (2). (4) In this regulation— social partner SWA members means— (a) the 2 members of Safe Work Australia who represent the interests of workers in Australia; and (b) the 2 members of Safe Work Australia who represent the interests of employers in Australia. 689C—Engineered stone—notifying persons of application for exemption (1) The regulator must give the application documents in relation to an application for an exemption under regulation 689A(1) to each corresponding regulator. (2) The regulator may also give the application documents for an application for an exemption under regulation 689A(1) to— (a) an employer organisation that includes employers who engage in work involving engineered stone; or (b) a union representing employees whose work includes work involving engineered stone; or (c) a person who has qualifications, knowledge, skills and experience relating to engineered stone. (3) In this regulation— application documents, in relation to an application for an exemption under regulation 689A(1), means— (a) a written notice stating— (i) the regulator has received the application; and (ii) the person receiving the notice may make submissions to the regulator about the application within the reasonable period set out in the notice; and (b) a copy of— (i) the application; and (ii) any submissions that the regulator receives in relation to the application under regulation 689B(3)(c). 689D—Engineered stone—regulator to be satisfied about certain matters (1) The regulator must not grant an exemption under regulation 689A(1) unless satisfied that granting the exemption will result in a standard of health and safety that is at least equivalent to the standard that would have been achieved without that exemption. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the regulator must have regard to all relevant matters, including— (a) any submissions received under regulation 689B(3)(c) or 689C; and (b) whether the regulator is satisfied that, if the exemption were granted, the risk associated with the type of engineered stone that is the subject of the application would not be significant; and (c) if Safe Work Australia publishes a document under regulation 689E—the relevant matters contained in the document. 689E—Safe Work Australia may issue and publish documents in relation to exemptions (1) Safe Work Australia may issue a document setting out the matters to be considered when granting an exemption under this Division. (2) Safe Work Australia must publish the document on the Safe Work Australia website. Note— See the Safe Work Australia website (https://www.safeworkaustralia.gov.au). Division 4—Exemption process 690—Application for exemption An application for an exemption must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. Notes— 1 The application must be in writing (see regulation 684(2)). 2 The regulator may grant an exemption on its own initiative (see regulation 684(2)). 3 See section 268 of the Act for offences relating to the giving of false or misleading information under the Act or these regulations. 691—Conditions of exemption (1) The regulator may impose any conditions it considers appropriate on an exemption granted under this Part. (2) Without limiting subregulation (1), conditions may require the applicant to do 1 or more of the following: (a) monitor risks; (b) monitor the health of persons at the workplace who may be affected by the exemption; (c) keep certain records; (d) use a stated system of work; (e) report certain matters to the regulator; (f) give notice of the exemption to persons who may be affected by the exemption. Note— A decision to impose a condition is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 692—Form of exemption document The regulator must prepare an exemption document that states the following: (a) the name of the applicant for the exemption (if any); (b) the person or class of persons to whom the exemption will apply, if applicable; (c) the work or thing to which the exemption relates, if applicable; (d) the circumstances in which the exemption will apply; (e) the provisions of these regulations to which the exemption applies; (f) any conditions on the exemption; (g) the date on which the exemption takes effect; (h) the duration of the exemption. 693—Compliance with conditions of exemption A person to whom the exemption is granted must— (a) comply with the conditions of the exemption; and (b) ensure that any person under the management or control of that person complies with the conditions of the exemption. 694—Notice of decision in relation to exemption (1) The regulator must give a copy of the exemption document referred to in regulation 692 within 14 days after making the decision to grant the exemption to— (a) if a person applied for the exemption—the applicant; or (b) if the regulator granted the exemption on the regulator's own initiative—each person (other than persons to whom regulation 695 applies) to whom the exemption will apply. (2) If the regulator grants an exemption under regulation 689A(1), the regulator must notify each corresponding regulator that the exemption is granted. 695—Publication of exemption (1) This regulation applies to an exemption that— (a) relates to a class of persons; or (b) is granted under regulation 689A(1). (2) The regulator must publish a copy of the exemption— (a) on an appropriate government website; and (b) in the Gazette. (3) If the regulator grants an exemption under regulation 689A(1), the regulator must publish on an appropriate government website the reasons for the decision within 14 days after the day the exemption is granted. 696—Notice of refusal of exemption (1) If the regulator refuses to grant an exemption, the regulator must give the applicant for the exemption written notice of the refusal within 14 days after making that decision. (2) The notice must state the regulator's reasons for the refusal. Note— A refusal to grant an exemption is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 697—Amendment or cancellation of exemption The regulator may at any time amend or cancel an exemption. Note— A decision to amend or cancel an exemption is a reviewable decision (see regulation 676). 698—Notice of amendment or cancellation (1) The regulator must give written notice of the amendment or cancellation of an exemption, within 14 days after making the decision to amend or cancel the exemption, to— (a) if a person applied for the exemption—the applicant; or (b) if the regulator granted the exemption on its own initiative—each person (other than persons to whom subregulation (2) applies) to whom the exemption applies. (2) If the exemption affects a class of persons or is granted under regulation 689A(1), the regulator must publish notice of the amendment or cancellation of the exemption in the Gazette. (3) The notice must state the regulator's reasons for the amendment or cancellation. (4) The amendment or cancellation takes effect— (a) on the publication of the notice in the Gazette, or on a later date specified in the notice; or (b) if the notice is not required to be published in the Gazette, on the giving of the notice to the applicant under subregulation (1) or on a later date specified in the notice. Part 3—Miscellaneous 699—Incident notification—prescribed serious illnesses For the purposes of section 36 of the Act, each of the following conditions is a serious illness: (a) any infection to which the carrying out of work is a significant contributing factor, including any infection that is reliably attributable to carrying out work— (i) with micro‑organisms; or (ii) that involves providing treatment or care to a person; or (iii) that involves contact with human blood or body substances; or (iv) that involves handling or contact with animals, animal hides, skins, wool or hair, animal carcasses or animal waste products; (b) the following occupational zoonoses contracted in the course of work involving handling or contact with animals, animal hides, skins, wool or hair, animal carcasses or animal waste products: (i) Q fever; (ii) Anthrax; (iii) Leptospirosis; (iv) Brucellosis; (v) Hendra Virus; (vi) Avian Influenza; (vii) Psittacosis. 699A—Incident notification—prescribed dangerous incident For the purposes of section 37 of the Act, the unplanned loss of control of heavy earthmoving machinery (including failure of braking or steering) at a mine is a dangerous incident. 700—Inspectors' identity cards For the purposes of section 157(1) of the Act, an identity card given by the regulator to an inspector must include the following: (a) a recent photograph of the inspector in the form specified by the regulator; (b) the inspector's signature; (c) the date (if any) on which the inspector's appointment ends; (d) any conditions to which the inspector's appointment is subject, including the kinds of workplaces in relation to which the inspector may exercise his or her compliance powers. 701—Review of decisions under the Act—stay of decision For the purposes of section 228(6)(a) of the Act, the prescribed period is 14 days. 702—Confidentiality of information—exception relating to administration or enforcement of other laws The following Acts are prescribed for the purposes of section 271(3)(c)(ii) of the Act: (a) a corresponding WHS law; (b) the Controlled Substances Act 1984; (c) the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935; (d) the Electricity Act 1996; (e) the Environment Protection Act 1993; (f) the Fire and Emergency Services Act 2005; (g) the Motor Vehicles Act 1959; (h) the National Vocational Education and Training Regulator Act 2011 of the Commonwealth; (i) the Navigation Act 2012 of the Commonwealth; (j) the Occupational Health and Safety Act 2004 of Victoria; (k) the Occupational Safety and Health Act 1984 of Western Australia; (l) the Rail Safety National Law (South Australia) Act 2012; (m) the Road Traffic Act 1961; (n) the Summary Offences Act 1953; (o) the Training and Skills Development Act 2008; (p) the Return to Work Act 2014; (q) the Return to Work Corporation of South Australia Act 1994. 703—Expiation notices An inspector is authorised to give expiation notices for alleged offences against the Act or these regulations. 704—Expiation of offences against Act (1) The expiation fees specified in the following table are prescribed for alleged offences against the Act arising from an alleged contravention of the section specified opposite the fee: Section||Fee| 38(7)|Duty to notify of notifiable incidents|In the case of an individual—$600; In the case of a body corporate—$3 000| 70(1)(c), (d) or (e)|General obligations of person conducting business or undertaking|In the case of an individual—$720; In the case of a body corporate—$3 600| 70(2)|General obligations of person conducting business or undertaking|In the case of an individual—$720; In the case of a body corporate—$3 600| 72(8)|Obligation to train health and safety representatives|In the case of an individual—$720; In the case of a body corporate—$3 600| 74(1)|List of health and safety representatives|In the case of an individual—$240; In the case of a body corporate—$1 200| 75(1)|Health and safety committees|In the case of an individual—$600; In the case of a body corporate—$3 000| 79(3)|Duties of person conducting business or undertaking|In the case of an individual—$720; In the case of a body corporate—$3 600| 79(4)|Duties of person conducting business or undertaking|In the case of an individual—$720; In the case of a body corporate—$3 600| 97(1)|Display of provisional improvement notice|In the case of an individual—$600; In the case of a body corporate—$3 000| 193|Compliance with improvement notice|In the case of an individual—$720; In the case of a body corporate—$3 600| 273|Person not to levy workers|In the case of an individual—$600; In the case of a body corporate—$3 000| (2) An offence against the Act for which an expiation fee is prescribed under subregulation (1) is declared to be an infringement offence for the purposes of the Act. 705—Waiver of fees The regulator may determine to refund, waive or reduce any fee prescribed for the purposes of the Act or these regulations. 706—Registration of employers (1) For the purposes of subclause (5)(a) of clause 2 of Schedule 5 of the Act, the following criteria are prescribed under subclause (6) of that clause: (a) that the fee or fees paid by a particular person should reflect the aggregate remuneration paid to the person's employees in each class of industry in which the person employs employees (after applying the industry classification or classifications, and any other relevant principles, that apply in relation to the employer under the Return to Work Act 2014); and (b) that the fee or fees paid by a person in a particular industry should reflect the risk of work-related injuries in that industry (by applying the industry premium rate that applies in relation to that industry under the Return to Work Act 2014). (2) The criteria prescribed under subregulation (1) replace the criteria under subclause (6) of clause 2 of Schedule 5 of the Act. (3) For the purposes of clause 2(10) of Schedule 5 of the Act, the periodical fee that applies under clause 2 of Schedule 5 of the Act is payable by an employer to RTWSA wherever the employer must make a payment of premium under section 144 of the Return to Work Act 2014 or must pay a fee under section 146 of that Act (and if a person fails to pay a fee, or the full amount of a fee, in accordance with this regulation then the unpaid amount will be taken to be unpaid premium or an unpaid fee (as the case requires) under Part 9 of the Return to Work Act 2014). (4) No fee is payable in relation to an organisation that is the subject of an exemption under section 114 of the Fair Work Act 1994. (5) For the purposes of clause 2(2) of Schedule 5 of the Act (and in addition to the persons who are exempt from the obligation to be registered as employers under the Return to Work Act 2014), the following persons are exempt from the obligation to be registered as employers under the Act: (a) a person carrying out work in relation to a mine to which the Mines and Works Inspection Act 1920 applies; (b) a person carrying out operations to which the Petroleum and Geothermal Energy Act 2000 or the Petroleum (Submerged Lands) Act 1982 apply. 707—Prescription of fee (1) For the purposes of clause 2 of Schedule 5 of the Act, the prescribed amount for the 2024/2025 financial year is $30 238 000. (2) The prescribed percentage of the prescribed amount payable to the Department for the 2024/2025 financial year is 99.04%. Part 4—Transitional and saving provisions 708—Interpretation In this Part— amusement structure has the same meaning as in the revoked regulations; Director has the same meaning as in the repealed Act; relevant day means the day on which this Part comes into operation; repealed Act means the Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Act 1986; revoked regulations means the Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Regulations 2010. 709—Training for health and safety representatives (regulation 21) (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a person who has completed a course of training approved for the purposes of section 31A of the repealed Act will be taken to have completed initial training for the purposes of sections 85(6) and 90(4) of the Act. (2) Subregulation (1) will cease to apply on the first anniversary of the relevant day (and so a person within the ambit of that subregulation must attend a day's bridging training of a kind approved by the regulator for the purposes of this regulation before the first anniversary of the relevant day in order to exercise the powers under sections 85 and 90 after that anniversary). (3) In the case of a person who, on the relevant day, is in his or her second or third year of a term of office as a health and safety representative, the day's bridging training envisaged by subregulation (2) will constitute an entitlement to a day's training that is additional to the days that apply as prescribed days under section 72 of the Act. 710—Confined space entry permit (regulation 67) (1) An entry permit in force under regulation 45 of the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be a confined space entry permit issued for the purposes of regulation 67(1) of these regulations and will be taken, subject to subregulation (2), to comply with the requirements of that regulation. (2) If a permit that is taken under subregulation (1) to be a confined space entry permit does not include space for an acknowledgement that work has been completed and that all persons have left the confined space as required under regulation 67(2)(d) of these regulations, the requirements of regulation 67(4)(b) will be satisfied if the competent person completes the acknowledgement on a separate piece of paper to be kept with the permit. 711—Notice of demolition work (regulation 142) If— (a) notice of the proposed commencement of notifiable work has been given to the Director in accordance with the requirements of regulation 416 of the revoked regulations before the relevant day; and (b) the notifiable work is to commence on or after the relevant day; and (c) the notifiable work is proposed demolition work of a kind referred to in regulation 142(1) of these regulations, the person who gave the notice will be taken to have given notice to the regulator of the proposed demolition work in accordance with regulation 142. 712—Inspection and testing of electrical equipment (regulation 150) If a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace has, before the relevant day, kept a record of regular inspection and testing of electrical plant in the workplace that has occurred in accordance with the requirements of regulation 55 of the revoked regulations, and the record satisfies the requirements of regulation 150(4) of these regulations, the record will be taken to be evidence that inspection and testing of the equipment occurred at the time specified in the record. 713—Plant with presence-sensing safeguarding system—records (regulation 226) Regulation 226 of these regulations applies to and in relation to a record maintained by a person in accordance with the requirements of regulation 121 of the revoked regulations relating to a presence-sensing safeguarding system. 714—Major inspection of registered mobile cranes and tower cranes (regulation 235) Until 1 January 2014, a person who is, in the opinion of a person to whom regulation 235 applies, competent to carry out maintenance, inspection and testing of a mobile crane or tower crane will be taken to be a competent person within the meaning of that regulation. 715—Records of plant (regulation 237) Regulation 237 of these regulations applies to and in relation to a record maintained by a person in accordance with the requirements of regulation 121 of the revoked regulations relating to plant of a kind that is required to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. 716—Health monitoring records (regulation 444) Regulation 444 of these regulations applies to and in relation to a record made for the purposes of regulation 206 of the revoked regulations or regulation 4.2.8 of the Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Regulations 1995 that relates to the health of a worker as if the record were a health monitoring report. 717—Licensed asbestos removalist must keep training records (regulation 461) Regulation 461 of these regulations applies to and in relation to a record made for the purposes of regulation 206 of the revoked regulations or regulation 4.2.8 of the Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Regulations 1995 that relates to training undertaken by a worker to ensure that he or she is aware of any risks involved in the performance of asbestos work and the precautions that should be taken to protect his or her health. 718—Amusement structures—registration of design (1) A design of an amusement structure registered, or taken to have been registered, under the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. (2) The following provisions apply in relation to a registration within the ambit of subregulation (1): (a) a condition that applied immediately before the relevant day with respect to the registration will be taken to be a condition of registration under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations; (b) a design registration number issued, or taken to have been issued, in respect of the registration under regulation 172 of the revoked regulations will be taken to have been issued under regulation 260 of these regulations; (c) the instrument of registration for the design of the amusement structure under the revoked regulations will be taken to be a registration document issued by the regulator in relation to the design of the structure under regulation 261 of these regulations. (3) An application for registration of a design of an amusement structure made under regulation 172 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for registration of a design of plant under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (4) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (3) satisfies the requirements of regulation 172 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. 719—Amusement structures—registration (1) An amusement structure registered under the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. (2) The following provisions apply in relation to a registration within the ambit of subregulation (1): (a) a condition that applied immediately before the relevant day with respect to the registration will be taken to be a condition of registration under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations; (b) the registration will expire— (i) at the end of the period of registration specified by the Director in the instrument of registration under the revoked regulations; or (ii) on the first anniversary of the relevant day, whichever occurs first; (c) the instrument of registration for the amusement structure under the revoked regulations will be taken to be a registration document issued by the regulator in relation to the structure under regulation 274 of these regulations. (3) An application for registration of an amusement structure made under regulation 173 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for registration of an item of plant under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (4) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (3) satisfies the requirements of regulation 173 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. 720—Plant—registration of design (1) A design of plant (other than an amusement structure) registered, or taken to have been registered, under the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. (2) The following provisions apply in relation to a registration within the ambit of subregulation (1): (a) a condition that applied immediately before the relevant day with respect to the registration will be taken to be a condition of registration under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations; (b) a design registration number issued, or taken to have been issued, in respect of the registration under regulation 139 of the revoked regulations will be taken to have been issued under regulation 260 of these regulations; (c) the instrument of registration for the design under the revoked regulations will be taken to be a registration document issued by the regulator in relation to the design of the item of plant under regulation 261 of these regulations. (3) Despite Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations, the design of concrete placing booms need not be registered unless the design was commenced on or after the first anniversary of the relevant day. (4) An application for registration of a plant design made under regulation 139 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for registration of a design of plant under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (5) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (4) satisfies the requirements of regulation 139 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. 721—Plant—registration (1) An item of plant (other than an amusement structure) registered under the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be registered under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. (2) The following provisions apply in relation to a registration within the ambit of subregulation (1): (a) a condition that applied immediately before the relevant day with respect to the registration will be taken to be a condition of registration under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations; (b) the registration will expire on the day on which an annual fee payable under regulation 143 of the revoked regulations in relation to the plant would have first been payable after the relevant day if those regulations had not been revoked; (c) a plant registration number applying in relation to the plant immediately before the relevant day will be taken to have been issued under regulation 273 of these regulations; (d) the instrument of registration for the item of plant under the revoked regulations will be taken to be a registration document issued by the regulator in relation to the item under regulation 274 of these regulations. (3) Until the first anniversary of the relevant day, the requirement under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations to register items of plant does not apply in relation to an item that— (a) falls within the category 'concrete placement with delivery booms'; and (b) would not, if the revoked regulations were still in operation, be required to be registered under Part 3 Division 4 of those regulations. (4) An application for registration of an item of plant made under regulation 140 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for registration of an item of plant under Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (5) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (4) satisfies the requirements of regulation 140 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 5 Part 3 of these regulations. 722—High risk work—accreditation of assessors (1) Registration of a person as an assessor under regulation 412 of the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be accreditation of the person to conduct assessments under regulation 115 of these regulations. (2) The following provisions apply in relation to an accreditation within the ambit of subregulation (1): (a) Chapter 4 Part 5 Division 2 of these regulations will apply, subject to this regulation, to and in relation to the accreditation; (b) any condition of the registration of the person in force under the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be a condition imposed on the accreditation by the regulator; (c) a certificate of the registration will be taken to be an accreditation document issued to the person by the regulator under regulation 123 of these regulations; (d) the accreditation will expire— (i) in the case of an accreditation of a person who was not required to pay a registration fee or an annual fee because he or she was registered as an assessor under a law of another State, a Territory or the Commonwealth that corresponds to the provisions of Part 7 Division 4 of the revoked regulations—when his or her registration as an assessor expires (whether under that other law or under another law under which the registration (however described) was continued); and (ii) in any other case— (A) on the day on which the annual fee in relation to the registration would have first become due and payable following the relevant day under regulation 412(14) of the revoked regulations; or (B) 12 months from the relevant day, whichever occurs first. (3) An application for registration as an assessor made under regulation 412 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for accreditation as an assessor under Chapter 4 Part 5 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (4) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (3) satisfies the requirements of regulation 412 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 4 Part 5 of these regulations. 723—Pipeline builder's duties (regulation 390) If, before the day on which regulation 390 commences, a notice is given as required under regulation 55 of the Dangerous Substances Regulations 2002 of an intention to re-lay, renew or carry out repairs to a pipeline, the person who gave the notice will be taken to have complied with the requirements of regulation 390(2) of these regulations with respect to the activity to which the notice relates. 724—Licence to carry out high risk work (1) This regulation applies to a high risk work licence to carry out high risk work of a particular class in force for the purposes of Part 7 Division 4 of the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day. (2) Subject to this regulation, a high risk work licence to which this regulation applies (the original licence) will be taken to be a high risk work licence for the class of high risk work under these regulations that corresponds to the class of high risk work authorised by the original licence. (3) Subject to this regulation, Chapter 4 Part 5 of these regulations applies to and in relation to a high risk work licence to which this regulation applies as if it were a high risk work licence issued by the regulator under that Part. (4) Any condition of the licence in force under the revoked regulations immediately before the relevant day will be taken to be a condition imposed on the licence by the regulator. (5) A high risk work licence to which this regulation applies will, unless cancelled earlier, expire 5 years after the day on which it was granted. (6) If a person holds a high risk work licence to which this regulation applies for the 'Basic boiler operation' or 'Intermediate boiler operation' class of high risk work, the licence will be taken to be a high risk work licence for the 'Standard boiler operation' class of high risk work under these regulations. (7) If a person holds a non-slewing mobile crane licence to which this regulation applies authorising the person to carry out work that, under these regulations, requires the person to hold a high risk work licence for the 'Reach stacker' class of high risk work, the licence will be taken, until the second anniversary of the relevant day, to be a high risk work licence for the 'Reach stacker' class of high risk work under these regulations. (8) A person may apply for, and may be granted, a high risk work licence for a class of high risk work to which this subregulation applies despite the fact that he or she has not completed the VET courses set out in Schedule 4 of these regulations in relation to the high risk work licence applied for if the person holds qualifications that would have enabled him or her to undertake high risk work of that class lawfully immediately before the relevant day (and regulations 86 and 87 of these regulations will apply as if the person had completed the relevant VET courses). (9) Subregulation (8) applies to the following classes of high risk work: (a) Concrete placing boom; (b) Reciprocating steam engine; (c) Advanced boiler operation; (d) Standard boiler operation; (e) Reach stacker; (f) Steam turbine operation. (10) Subregulation (8) will cease to have effect on the second anniversary of the relevant day (but an application for a high risk work licence for a class of high risk work to which that subregulation applies made before that anniversary is to be dealt with as if the subregulation still had effect). (11) An application for a licence made under regulation 387 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for the equivalent licence under Chapter 4 Part 5 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (12) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (11) satisfies the requirements of regulation 387 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 4 Part 5 of these regulations. (13) If— (a) a person held a relevant certificate relating to high risk work that was in force immediately before the commencement of the revoked regulations; and (b) the person was permitted under regulation 408 of the revoked regulations to continue to perform the work for which the certificate was granted until expiry of the certificate in accordance with Schedule 10 of the revoked regulations; and (c) the certificate has not expired before the commencement of these regulations, the person may continue to perform the work for which the certificate was granted (subject to any terms and conditions granted with the certificate) until the day on which the certificate would expire under that Schedule if the revoked regulations were still in operation. (14) In subregulation (13)— relevant certificate means— (a) a certificate of competency as defined in regulation 6.4.1 of the Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Regulations 1995 as in force immediately before the commencement of the revoked regulations; (b) other evidence of competency. 725—Asbestos removal licence (1) This regulation applies to an asbestos removal licence issued, or taken to have been issued, by the Director under Part 5 Division 2 of the revoked regulations if the licence was in force immediately before the relevant day. (2) An asbestos removal licence to which this regulation applies will be taken to have been granted under Chapter 8 Part 10 of these regulations. (3) An asbestos removal licence to which this regulation applies that is limited to the removal of asbestos-cement (fibro) products or other non-friable asbestos containing material will be taken to be a Class B asbestos removal licence. (4) An asbestos removal licence to which this regulation applies that is not limited will be taken to be a Class A asbestos removal licence. (5) Subject to this regulation, Chapter 8 Part 10 of these regulations applies to and in relation to an asbestos removal licence to which this regulation applies as if it were an asbestos removal licence issued by the regulator under that Part. (6) An asbestos removal licence to which this regulation applies will, unless cancelled earlier, expire 2 years after the day on which it was granted. 727—Asbestos assessors licence (1) A person who, immediately before the relevant day, was authorised to carry out work of a kind requiring the person to hold an asbestos assessor licence under these regulations is authorised to carry out work of that kind despite the fact he or she is not the holder of an asbestos assessor licence. (2) This regulation will cease to have effect on the second anniversary of the relevant day. 728—Asbestos removal supervisors and asbestos removal workers (1) Despite any other regulation, the regulator may, on application by a person, authorise the person to supervise or carry out licensed asbestos removal work despite the fact that the person does not hold certification in relation to the specified VET course relevant to the supervision of asbestos removal work or the class of licensed asbestos removal work to be carried out if the regulator is satisfied that the person has appropriate training and is competent to supervise or carry out the work. (2) An application under subregulation (1) must be made in the manner and form required by the regulator. (3) This regulation will cease to have effect on the second anniversary of the relevant day. 729—Applicants for asbestos removal licences or asbestos assessor licences (regulation 491) (1) Until the second anniversary of the relevant day, a person may apply for, and may be granted, a Class A asbestos removal licence or a Class B asbestos removal licence despite the fact that he or she has not completed the specified VET course for the supervision of asbestos removal work if the regulator is satisfied that the person has appropriate training and experience and is competent to supervise the work to which the licence relates. (2) Until the second anniversary of the relevant day, a person may apply for, and may be granted, an asbestos assessor licence despite the fact that he or she has not completed the specified VET course for asbestos assessor work if the regulator is satisfied that the person has appropriate training and experience and is competent to carry out asbestos assessor work. (3) An application for an asbestos removal licence made under regulation 202 of the revoked regulations but not finally determined immediately before the relevant day is to be taken to be an application to the regulator for the equivalent licence under Chapter 8 Part 10 of these regulations and is to be dealt with accordingly. (4) If an application within the ambit of subregulation (3) satisfies the requirements of regulation 202 of the revoked regulations, the application will be taken to satisfy the requirements of Chapter 8 Part 10 of these regulations. 730—Diving work (1) A person is taken to have the qualifications under regulation 171 in relation to general diving work if the person has— (a) undertaken harvesting or scientific diving work during 2012; and (b) completed at least 60 hours of harvesting or scientific work between 1 January 2011 and 31 December 2012 (both days inclusive). (2) If subregulation (1) does not apply, a person is taken to have a qualification under regulation 171— (a) in relation to general diving work (other than harvesting or scientific work); and (b) until the end of 31 December 2013, in relation to harvesting or scientific work, if the person has— (c) undertaken general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific work) during 2012; and (d) completed at least 60 hours of general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific diving work) between 1 January 2011 and 31 December 2012 (both days inclusive). (3) If subregulations (1) and (2) do not apply, a person is taken, until 31 December 2013, to have qualifications under regulation 171(a) in relation to general diving work if the person has— (a) undertaken general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific diving work) during 2012; and (b) completed at least 15 hours of general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific diving work) between 1 January 2011 and 31 December 2012 (both dates inclusive). (4) If subregulations (1), (2) and (3) do not apply, and a person undertakes general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific diving work) between 1 January 2013 and 30 June 2013 (both dates inclusive), that person is taken to have a qualification under regulation 171(a) for 6 months from the date on which the person first undertakes general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific diving work) during that period. (5) In this regulation— harvesting or scientific diving work means general diving work (other than incidental diving work and limited scientific diving work) that is carried out for the purposes of— (a) taking fish, shellfish or other marine or aquatic life (whether for food or for other purposes); or (b) professional scientific research, natural resource management or scientific research as an educational activity. 731—Duties of designers (1) Subject to this regulation, the duties imposed on a designer under regulation 59, 61 or 64, Division 2 of Chapter 5 Part 1, Division 2 of Chapter 5 Part 2 or regulation 295 of these regulations do not apply to or in relation to the designing of any plant, substance or structure (including with respect to the provision of any information) if the designer commenced (or commenced and completed) designing the plant, substance or structure before the relevant day. (2) If— (a) subregulation (1) applies in relation to a particular design; and (b) the designer would, if the revoked regulations were still in operation, be subject to the operation of a provision of the revoked regulations imposing a duty that corresponds to a duty of a kind imposed under a provision referred to in subregulation (1), then— (c) the designer must comply with the relevant requirements of those provisions as if the revoked regulations were still in operation; and (d) if the designer fails to comply with paragraph (c), then action may be brought against the designer (including by the undertaking of a prosecution) as if the revoked regulations were still in operation. (3) If a designer commenced designing any plant, substance or structure before the relevant day but has not completed the design by the second anniversary of the relevant day, then the designer will, in relation to the design, cease to have the benefit of subregulation (1) and the designer must comply with the requirements of these regulations in relation to the duties of a designer (as if these regulations had been in operation at the time that the designer commenced designing). 732—Duties of manufacturers (1) Subject to this regulation, the duties imposed on a manufacturer under regulation 59, 61, 64, Division 3 of Chapter 5 Part 1 or regulation 231 of these regulations do not apply to or in relation to the manufacture of any plant, substance or structure (including with respect to the provision of any information) if the manufacturer commenced (or commenced and completed) any process associated with the manufacturing of the plant, substance or structure before the relevant day. (2) If— (a) subregulation (1) applies in relation to the manufacture of any particular plant, substance or structure; and (b) the manufacturer would, if the revoked regulations were still in operation, be subject to the operation of a provision of the revoked regulations imposing a duty that corresponds to a duty of a kind imposed under a provision referred to in subregulation (1), then— (c) the manufacturer must comply with the relevant requirements of those provisions as if the revoked regulations were in operation; and (d) if the manufacturer fails to comply with paragraph (c), then action may be brought against the manufacturer (including by the undertaking of a prosecution) as if the revoked regulations were still in operation. (3) If a manufacturer commenced any process associated with the manufacturing of any plant, substance or structure before the relevant day but has not completed the manufacturing by the first anniversary of the relevant day, then the manufacturer will, in relation to the manufacture of the plant, substance or structure, cease to have the benefit of subregulation (1) and the manufacturer must comply with the requirements of these regulations in relation to the duties of a manufacturer (as if these regulations had been in operation at the time that the manufacturer commenced this process). 733—Duties of importers (1) Subject to this regulation, the duties imposed on an importer under regulation 59, 61, 64, Division 4 of Chapter 5 Part 1 or regulation 232 of these regulations do not apply to or in relation to the importing of any plant, substance or structure (including with respect to carrying out any calculations, analysis, testing or examination or with respect to the provision of any information) if the importer commenced (or commenced and completed) any steps constituting the importation of the plant, substance or structure before the relevant day. (2) If— (a) subregulation (1) applies in relation to the importing of any particular plant, substance or structure; and (b) the importer would, if the revoked regulations were still in operation, be subject to the operation of a provision of the revoked regulations imposing a duty that corresponds to a duty of a kind imposed under a provision referred to in subregulation (1), then— (c) the importer must comply with the relevant requirements of those provisions as if the revoked regulations were in operation; and (d) if the importer fails to comply with paragraph (c), then action may be brought against the importer (including by the undertaking of a prosecution) as if the revoked regulations were still in operation. (3) If an importer commenced any process associated with the importing of any plant, substance or structure before the relevant day but has not completed the importing by the first anniversary of the relevant day, then the importer will, in relation to the importing of the plant, substance or structure, cease to have the benefit of subregulation (1) and the importer must comply with the requirements of these regulations in relation to the duties of an importer (as if these regulations had been in operation at the time that the importer commenced this process). 734—Duties of suppliers (1) Subject to this regulation, the duties imposed on a supplier under regulation 59, 61, 64, Division 5 of Chapter 5 Part 1 or 233 of these regulations do not apply to or in relation to the supply of any plant, substance or structure (including with respect to the provision of any information) if the supplier commenced (or commenced and completed) any process associated with the supply of the plant, substance or structure before the relevant day. (2) If— (a) subregulation (1) applies in relation to the supply of any particular plant, substance or structure; and (b) the importer would, if the revoked regulations were still in operation, be subject to the operation of a provision of the revoked regulations imposing a duty that corresponds to a duty of a kind imposed under a provision referred to in subregulation (1), then— (c) the supplier must comply with the relevant requirement of those provisions as if the revoked regulations were in operation; and (d) if the supplier fails to comply with paragraph (c), then action may be brought against the supplier (including by the undertaking of a prosecution) as if the revoked regulations were still in operation. (3) If a supplier commenced any process associated with the supply of any plant, substance or structure before the relevant day but has not completed the supplying by the first anniversary of the relevant day, then the supplier will, in relation to the supply of the plant, substance or structure, cease to have the benefit of subregulation (1) and the supplier must comply with the requirements of these regulations in relation to the duties of a supplier (as if these regulations had been in operation at the time that the supplier commenced this process). 735—Duties of persons who install, construct or commission plant or structures (1) In this regulation— designated person means a person who conducts a business or undertaking that installs, constructs or commissions plant or a structure. (2) If— (a) clause 17(2) of Schedule 6 of the Act applies in relation to the installation, construction or commissioning of any plant or structure; and (b) a designated person would be subject to the operation of section 24 of the repealed Act if that section were still in operation, then— (c) the designated person must comply with the relevant requirements of that section as if the repealed Act were still in operation; and (d) if the designated person fails to comply with paragraph (c), action may be brought against the designated person (including by the undertaking of a prosecution) as if the repealed Act were still in operation. (3) Subject to this regulation, the duties imposed on a designated person under Division 6 of Chapter 5 Part 1, regulation 234, 294 or 296 of these regulations do not apply to or in relation to the installation, construction or commissioning of any plant or structure if the designated person commenced (or commenced and completed) any process associated with the installation, construction or commissioning of the plant or structure before the relevant day. (4) If— (a) subregulation (3) applies in relation to the installation, construction or commissioning of any particular plant or structure; and (b) the designated person would, if the revoked regulations were still in operation, be subject to the operation of a provision of the revoked regulations imposing a duty that corresponds to a duty of a kind imposed under a provision referred to in subregulation (3), then— (c) the designated person must comply with the relevant requirement of those provisions as if the revoked regulations were in operation; and (d) if the designated person fails to comply with paragraph (c), then action may be brought against the person (including by the undertaking of a prosecution) as if the revoked regulations were still in operation. (5) If a designated person commenced any process associated with the installation, construction or commissioning of any plant or structure before the relevant day but had not completed the installation, construction or commissioning by the second anniversary of the relevant day, then the designated person will, in relation to the installation, construction or commissioning of the plant or structure, cease to have the benefit of subregulation (3) and the designated person must comply with the requirements of these regulations in relation to the duties of a designated person (as if these regulations had been in operation at the time that the designated person commenced this process). 736—Classification and labelling under GHS Until 31 December 2016, if a provision of these regulations imposes an obligation or duty on a person to classify or label a hazardous chemical under or in accordance with the GHS, the person will be taken to have complied with the obligation or duty if he or she classifies or labels the chemical under or in accordance with— (a) the ADG Code; or (b) — (i) the Approved Criteria for Classifying Hazardous Substances [NOHSC:1008 (2004)]; and (ii) the Labelling of Workplace Hazardous Chemicals Code of Practice published by Safe Work Australia in December 2011. 737—Roll-over protection on tractors (regulation 216) A person with the management or control of a tractor manufactured, imported or originally purchased before 1 January 1981 is not required to comply with regulation 216 of these regulations in relation to the tractor until 1 January 2016. 738—Existing use, handling or storing of prohibited or restricted carcinogens (regulations 380 and 381) (1) This regulation applies if on the relevant day a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace is using, handling or storing— (a) a prohibited carcinogen to which regulation 380 applies (the relevant regulation); or (b) a restricted carcinogen to which regulation 381 applies (also the relevant regulation). (2) Subregulation (3) applies to the person if the person makes an application (a transitional application) to the regulator under regulation 383 for an authorisation for use, handling or storage within 12 months after the relevant day. (3) The relevant regulation does not apply to the person until— (a) the transitional application is granted; or (b) the transitional application is refused and any review or appeal in relation to the decision to refuse the application has ended. 739—Codes of practice (repealed Act) (1) The following approved codes of practice in force under section 63 of the repealed Act immediately before the relevant day are brought within the ambit of the definition of prescribed code of practice for the purposes of Schedule 6 Part 9 clause 23 of the Act: (a) Approved Code of Practice for Working Hours; (b) National Code of Practice for Precast, Tilt Up and Concrete Elements in Building Construction; (c) Approved Code of Practice for Tuna Farm Diving; (d) AS/NZS 1200: Pressure equipment; (e) AS 4024.3001: Safety of machinery—Materials forming and shearing—Mechanical power presses; (f) AS 4024.3002: Safety of machinery—Materials forming and shearing—Hydrologic power presses; (g) AS 1418: Cranes, including hoists and winches; (h) AS/NZS 1576: Scaffolding (Parts 1 - 4); (i) AS 1735: Lifts, escalators and moving walks; (j) AS 1755: Conveyers—Safety requirements; (k) AS 3533: Amusement rides and devices; (l) AS 2030: Gas cylinders; (m) AS 2550: Cranes, hoists and winches—Safe use; (n) AS 2593: Boilers—Safety management and supervision systems; (o) AS/NZS 3788: Pressure equipment—In-service inspection. (2) Any other approved code of practice in force under section 63 of the repealed Act immediately before the relevant day is revoked. 740—Codes of practice (new scheme) A code of practice approved by the Minister for the purposes of the Act that is specified to come into operation on 1 January 2013 (being the day on which the Act comes into operation)— (a) will be taken to have been approved on the recommendation of the Advisory Council if it has been the subject of a recommendation of the Advisory Committee under the repealed Act; and (b) will be taken not to be subject to the requirement that applies under section 274(3) of the Act before it can take effect for the purposes of the Act. 741—Consultants A person who, immediately before the relevant day, holds a current approval under section 32(3)(a) of the repealed Act will be taken to hold an approval under section 68(4)(c) of the Act. Part 5—Transitional and saving provisions associated with Work Health and Safety (Engineered Stone) Amendment Regulations 2024 742—Particular work involving engineered stone—exception if carried out before 1 July 2024 Regulation 529D does not apply to work that involves engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs if— (a) the work is carried out before 1 July 2024; and (b) for work that involves processing the stone—the work is controlled. 743—Particular work involving engineered stone—exception if carried out under pre-2024 contract (1) Regulation 529D does not apply to work that involves installing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs if the work is carried out— (a) under a contract originally entered into on or before 31 December 2023; and (b) on or before 31 December 2024. (2) Regulation 529D does not apply to work if— (a) the work involves supplying or processing engineered stone benchtops, panels or slabs to be installed under a contract referred to in subregulation (1)(a); and (b) the work occurs on or before 31 December 2024; and (c) for work that involves processing the engineered stone—the processing is controlled. 744—Application of Chapter 8A Part 3 to processing of engineered stone carried out before 1 July 2024 (1) Regulation 529G(2) does not apply to a person conducting a business or undertaking carrying out, or directing or allowing a worker to carry out, work to which regulation 529G(1) applies if the work is carried out before 1 July 2024 and— (a) the work is no longer being carried out on or after 1 July 2024; or (b) the work is being carried out on or after 1 July 2024 and the person gives the regulator a written notice described in regulation 529G(2) in relation to the work— (i) on or before 1 July 2024; or (ii) as soon as practicable after 1 July 2024. (2) A notice given under subregulation (1)(b) is taken, for the purposes of Chapter 8A Part 3, to be a notice given under regulation 529G(2). Schedule 2—Fees Fees to be paid under these regulations are prescribed in a fee notice made in accordance with the Legislation (Fees) Act 2019. Schedule 3—High risk work licences and classes of high risk work Regulation 81 1—Boom-type elevating work platform For the purposes of table 3.1 item 21, the length of a boom is the greater of the following: (a) the vertical distance from the surface supporting the boom‑type elevating work platform to the floor of the platform, with the platform extended to its maximum height; (b) the horizontal distance from the centre point of the boom's rotation to the outer edge of the platform, with the platform extended to its maximum distance. Table 3.1 Item|High risk work licence|Description of class of high risk work| Scaffolding work||| 1 Basic scaffolding||Scaffolding work involving any of the following:| || (a) modular or pre‑fabricated scaffolds;| || (b) cantilevered materials hoists with a maximum working load of 500 kilograms;| || (c) ropes;| || (d) gin wheels;| || (e) safety nets and static lines;| || (f) bracket scaffolds (tank and formwork),| ||but excluding scaffolding work involving equipment, loads or tasks listed in item 2(2)(a) to (g) and item 3(2)(a) to (c)| 2 Intermediate scaffolding|| (1) Scaffolding work included in the class of Basic scaffolding; and| || (2) Scaffolding work involving any of the following:| || (a) cantilevered crane loading platforms;| || (b) cantilevered scaffolds;| || (c) spur scaffolds;| || (d) barrow ramps and sloping platforms;| || (e) scaffolding associated with perimeter safety screens and shutters;| || (f) mast climbing work platforms;| || (g) tube and coupler scaffolds (including tube and coupler covered ways and gantries),| ||but excluding scaffolding work involving equipment, loads or tasks listed in item 3(2)(a) to (c)| 3 Advanced scaffolding|| (1) Scaffolding work included in the class of Intermediate scaffolding; and| || (2) Scaffolding work involving any of the following:| || (a) cantilevered hoists;| || (b) hung scaffolds, including scaffolds hung from tubes, wire ropes or chains;| || (c) suspended scaffolds| Dogging and rigging work||| 4 Dogging||Dogging work| 5 Basic rigging|| (1) Dogging work| || (2) Rigging work involving any of the following:| || (a) structural steel erection;| || (b) hoists;| || (c) pre-cast concrete members of a structure;| || (d) safety nets and static lines;| || (e) mast climbing work platforms;| || (f) perimeter safety screens and shutters;| || (g) cantilevered crane loading platforms,| ||but excluding rigging work involving equipment, loads or tasks listed in item 6(b) to (f) and item 7(b) to (e)| 6 Intermediate rigging||Rigging work involving any of the following:| || (a) rigging work in the class Basic Rigging;| || (b) hoists with jibs and self‑climbing hoists;| || (c) cranes, conveyors, dredges and excavators;| || (d) tilt slabs;| || (e) demolition of structures or plant;| || (f) dual lifts,| ||but excluding rigging work involving equipment listed in item 7(b) to (e)| 7 Advanced rigging||Rigging work involving any of the following:| || (a) rigging work in the class Intermediate Rigging;| || (b) gin poles and shear legs;| || (c) flying foxes and cable ways;| || (d) guyed derricks and structures;| || (e) suspended scaffolds and fabricated hung scaffolds| Crane and hoist operation||| 8 Tower crane||Use of a tower crane| 9 Self‑erecting tower crane||Use of a self-erecting tower crane| 10 Derrick crane||Use of a derrick crane| 11 Portal boom crane||Use of a portal boom crane| 12 Bridge and gantry crane||Use of a bridge crane or gantry crane that is—| || (a) controlled from a permanent cabin or control station on the crane; or| || (b) remotely controlled and having more than 3 powered operations,| ||including the application of load estimation and slinging techniques to move a load| 13 Vehicle loading crane||Use of a vehicle loading crane with a capacity of 10 metre tonnes or more, including the application of load estimation and slinging techniques to move a load| 14 Non-slewing mobile crane||Use of a non-slewing mobile crane with a capacity exceeding 3 tonnes| 15 Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity up to 20 tonnes||Use of a slewing mobile crane with a capacity of 20 tonnes or less| ||Use of a vehicle loading crane with a capacity of 10 metre tonnes or more, excluding the application of load estimation and slinging techniques to move a load| ||Use of a non-slewing mobile crane with a capacity exceeding 3 tonnes| ||Use of a reach stacker| 16 Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity up to 60 tonnes||Use of a slewing mobile crane with a capacity of 60 tonnes or less| ||Use of a vehicle loading crane with a capacity of 10 metre tonnes or more, excluding the application of load estimation and slinging techniques to move a load| ||Use of a non-slewing mobile crane with a capacity exceeding 3 tonnes| ||Use of a reach stacker| 17 Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity up to 100 tonnes||Use of a slewing mobile crane with a capacity of 100 tonnes or less| ||Use of a vehicle loading crane with a capacity of 10 metre tonnes or more, excluding the application of load estimation and slinging techniques to move a load| ||Use of a non-slewing mobile crane with a capacity exceeding 3 tonnes| ||Use of a reach stacker| 18 Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity over 100 tonnes||Use of a slewing mobile crane with a capacity exceeding 100 tonnes| ||Use of a vehicle loading crane with a capacity of 10 metre tonnes or more, excluding the application of load estimation and slinging techniques to move a load| ||Use of a non-slewing mobile crane with a capacity exceeding 3 tonnes| ||Use of a reach stacker| 19 Materials hoist||Use of a materials hoist| 20 Personnel and materials hoist||Use of a personnel and materials hoist| ||Use of a materials hoist| 21 Boom-type elevating work platform||Use of a boom-type elevating work platform where the length of the boom is 11 metres or more| 22 Concrete placing boom||Use of a concrete placing boom| Reach stackers||| 23 Reach stacker||Operation of a reach stacker of greater than 3 tonnes capacity that incorporates an attachment for lifting, moving and travelling with a shipping container, but does not include a portainer crane| Forklift operation||| 24 Forklift truck||Use of a forklift truck other than an order‑picking forklift truck| 25 Order-picking forklift truck||Use of an order-picking forklift truck| Pressure equipment operation||| 26 Standard boiler operation||Operation of a boiler with a single fuel source that does not have a pre‑heater, superheater or economiser attached| 27 Advanced boiler operation||Operation of a boiler, including a standard boiler, which may have one or more of the following:| || (a) multiple fuel sources;| || (b) pre-heater;| || (c) superheater;| || (d) economiser| 28 Steam turbine operation||Operation of a steam turbine that has an output of 500 kilowatts or more and—| || (a) is multi-wheeled; or| || (b) is capable of a speed greater than 3 600 revolutions per minute; or| || (c) has attached condensers; or| || (d) has a multi-staged heat exchange extraction process| 29 Reciprocating steam engine||Operation of a reciprocating steam engine where the diameter of any piston exceeds 250 millimetres| Schedule 4—High risk work licences—competency requirements Regulation 81 1—Purpose of this Schedule This Schedule sets out the qualifications for high risk work licences. Table 4.1 Item|Licence class|VET course| 1|Basic scaffolding|Licence to erect, alter and dismantle scaffolding basic level| 2|Intermediate scaffolding|Licence to erect, alter and dismantle scaffolding basic level; and| ||Licence to erect, alter and dismantle scaffolding intermediate level| 3|Advanced scaffolding|Licence to erect, alter and dismantle scaffolding basic level; and| ||Licence to erect, alter and dismantle scaffolding intermediate level; and| ||Licence to erect, alter and dismantle scaffolding advanced level| 4|Dogging|Licence to perform dogging| 5|Basic rigging|Licence to perform dogging; and| ||Licence to perform rigging basic level| 6|Intermediate rigging|Licence to perform dogging; and| ||Licence to perform rigging basic level; and| ||Licence to perform rigging intermediate level| 7|Advanced rigging|Licence to perform dogging; and| ||Licence to perform rigging basic level; and| ||Licence to perform rigging intermediate level; and| ||Licence to perform rigging advanced level| 8|Tower crane|Licence to operate a tower crane| 9|Self-erecting tower crane|Licence to operate a self‑erecting tower crane| 10|Derrick crane|Licence to operate a derrick crane| 11|Portal boom crane|Licence to operate a portal boom crane| 12|Bridge and gantry crane|Licence to operate a bridge and gantry crane| 13|Vehicle loading crane|Licence to operate a vehicle loading crane (capacity 10 metre tonnes and above)| 14|Non-slewing mobile crane|Licence to operate a non‑slewing mobile crane (greater than 3 tonnes capacity)| 15|Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity up to 20 tonnes|Licence to operate a slewing mobile crane (up to 20 tonnes)| 16|Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity up to 60 tonnes|Licence to operate a slewing mobile crane (up to 60 tonnes)| 17|Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity up to 100 tonnes|Licence to operate a slewing mobile crane (up to 100 tonnes)| 18|Slewing mobile crane—with a capacity over 100 tonnes|Licence to operate a slewing mobile crane (over 100 tonnes)| 19|Materials hoist|Licence to operate a materials hoist| 20|Personnel and materials hoist|Licence to operate a personnel and materials hoist| 21|Boom-type elevating work platform|Licence to operate a boom‑type elevating work platform (boom length 11 metres or more)| 22|Concrete placing boom|Licence to operate a concrete placing boom| 23|Reach stacker|Licence to operate a reach stacker of greater than 3 tonnes capacity| 24|Forklift truck|Licence to operate a forklift truck| 25|Order-picking forklift truck|Licence to operate an order‑picking forklift truck| 26|Standard boiler operation|Licence to operate a standard boiler| 27|Advanced boiler operation|Licence to operate a standard boiler; and| ||Licence to operate an advanced boiler| 28|Steam turbine operation|Licence to operate a steam turbine| 29|Reciprocating steam engine operation|Licence to operate a reciprocating steam engine| Schedule 5—Registration of plant and plant designs Regulations 243 and 246 Part 1—Plant requiring registration of design 1—Items of plant requiring registration of design 1.1|Pressure equipment, other than pressure piping, and categorised as hazard level A, B, C or D according to the criteria in Section 2.1 of AS 4343: 2014 (Pressure equipment—Hazard levels).| 1.2|Gas cylinders covered by Section 1 of AS 2030.1: 2009 (Gas cylinders—General Requirements).| 1.3|Tower cranes including self‑erecting tower cranes.| 1.4|Lifts, including escalators and moving walkways.| 1.5|Building maintenance units.| 1.6|Hoists with a platform movement exceeding 2.4 metres, designed to lift people.| 1.7|Work boxes designed to be suspended from cranes.| 1.8|Amusement devices classified by Section 2.1 of AS 3533.1: 2009 (Amusement rides and devices—Design and construction), except devices specified in clause 2(2).| 1.8A|Passenger ropeways.| 1.9|Concrete placing booms.| 1.10|Prefabricated scaffolding.| 1.11|Boom-type elevating work platforms.| 1.12|Gantry cranes with a safe working load greater than 5 tonnes or bridge cranes with a safe working load of greater than 10 tonnes, and any gantry crane or bridge crane which is designed to handle molten metal or Schedule 10 hazardous chemicals.| 1.13|Vehicle hoists.| 1.14|Mast climbing work platforms.| 1.15|Mobile cranes with a rated capacity of greater than 10 tonnes.| 2—Exceptions (1) The items of plant listed in clause 1 do not include— (a) a heritage boiler; or (ab) any pressure equipment (other than a gas cylinder) excluded from the scope of AS/NZS 1200:2015 (Pressure equipment); or Note— See paragraph A3 of Appendix A to AS/NZS 1200:2015. (b) a crane or hoist that is manually powered; or (ba) a reach stacker; or (c) an elevating work platform that is a scissor lift or a vertically moving platform; or (d) a tow truck. (2) The following devices are excluded from clause 1.8: (a) class 1 devices (as so classified under AS 3533.1: 2009, Section 2.1); (b) playground devices; (c) water slides where water facilitates patrons to slide easily, predominantly under gravity, along a static structure; (d) wave generators where patrons do not come into contact with the parts of machinery used for generating water waves; (e) inflatable devices, other than inflatable devices (continuously blown) with a platform height of 3 metres or more. Part 2—Items of plant requiring registration 3—Items of plant requiring registration 3.1|Boilers categorised as hazard level A, B or C according to criteria in Section 2.1 of AS 4343: 2014 (Pressure equipment—Hazard levels).| 3.2|Pressure vessels categorised as hazard level A, B or C according to the criteria in Section 2.1 of AS 4343: 2014 (Pressure equipment—Hazard levels), except—| | (a) gas cylinders; and| | (b) LP Gas fuel vessels for automotive use; and| | (c) serially produced vessels.| 3.3|Tower cranes including self-erecting tower cranes.| 3.4|Lifts, including escalators and moving walkways.| 3.5|Building maintenance units.| 3.6|Amusement devices classified by Section 2.1 of AS 3533.1: 2009 (Amusement rides and devices—Design and construction), except devices specified in clause 4(2).| 3.7|Concrete placing booms.| 3.8|Mobile cranes with a rated capacity of greater than 10 tonnes.| 4—Exceptions (1) The items of plant listed in clause 3 do not include— (a) any pressure equipment (other than a gas cylinder) excluded from the scope of AS/NZS 1200:2015 (Pressure equipment); or Note— See paragraph A3 of Appendix A to AS/NZS 1200:2015. (b) a crane or hoist that is manually powered; or (c) a reach stacker. (2) The following devices are excluded from clause 3.6: (a) class 1 devices; (b) playground devices; (c) water slides where water facilitates patrons to slide easily, predominantly under gravity, along a static structure; (d) wave generators where patrons do not come into contact with the parts of machinery used for generating water waves; (e) inflatable devices, other than inflatable devices (continuously blown) with a platform height of 3 metres or more. Schedule 6—Classification of mixtures 1—Purpose of this Schedule The tables in this Schedule replace some of the tables in the GHS. Note— See the definition of GHS in regulation 5. Table 6.1—Classification of mixtures containing respiratory or skin sensitisers Cut-off values/concentration limits of ingredients of a mixture classified as either a respiratory sensitiser or a skin sensitiser that would trigger classification of the mixture. Item|Ingredient classification|Mixture classification||| ||Skin sensitiser|Respiratory sensitiser|| ||Category 1|Category 1|| ||All physical states|Solid/liquid|Gas| 1|Skin sensitiser Category 1|≥ 1.0%||| 2|Skin sensitiser Sub‑category 1A|≥ 0.1%||| 3|Skin sensitiser Sub‑category 1B|≥ 1.0%||| 4|Respiratory sensitiser Category 1||≥ 1.0%|≥ 0.2%| 5|Respiratory sensitiser Sub‑category 1A||≥ 0.1%|≥ 0.1%| 6|Respiratory sensitiser Sub‑category 1B||≥ 1.0%|≥ 0.2%| Note— Table 6.1 replaces table 3.4.5 in— (a) the GHS, p 159; and (b) GHS 3, p 151. Table 6.2—Classification of mixtures containing carcinogens Cut-off values/concentration limits of ingredients of a mixture classified as a carcinogen that would trigger classification of the mixture. Item|Ingredient classification|Mixture classification|| ||Category 1 carcinogen|Category 2 carcinogen| 1|Category 1 carcinogen|≥ 0.1%|| 2|Category 2 carcinogen||≥ 1.0%| Notes— 1 The concentration limits in table 6.2 apply to solids and liquids (w/w units) and gases (v/v units). 2 Table 6.2 replaces table 3.6.1 in— (a) the GHS, p 174; and (b) GHS 3, p 166. Table 6.3—Classification of mixtures containing reproductive toxicants Cut-off values/concentration limits of ingredients of a mixture classified as a reproductive toxicant or for effects on or via lactation that would trigger classification of the mixture. Item|Ingredient classification|Mixture classification||| ||Category 1 reproductive toxicant|Category 2 reproductive toxicant|Additional category for effects on or via lactation| 1|Category 1 reproductive toxicant|≥ 0.3%||| 2|Category 2 reproductive toxicant||≥ 3.0%|| 3|Additional category for effects on or via lactation|||≥ 0.3%| Notes— 1 The concentration limits in table 6.3 apply to solids and liquids (w/w units) and gases (v/v units). 2 Table 6.3 replaces table 3.7.1 in— (a) the GHS, p 187; and (b) GHS 3, p 180. Table 6.4—Classification of mixtures containing specific target organ toxicants (single exposure) Cut-off values/concentration limits of ingredients of a mixture classified as a specific target organ toxicant that would trigger classification of the mixture. Item|Ingredient classification|Mixture classification|| ||Category 1|Category 2| 1|Category 1 specific target organ toxicant|Concentration ≥ 10%|1.0% ≤ concentration < 10%| 2|Category 2 specific target organ toxicant||Concentration ≥ 10%| Notes— 1 The concentration limits in table 6.4 apply to solids and liquids (w/w units) and gases (v/v units). 2 Table 6.4 replaces table 3.8.2 in— (a) the GHS, p 197; and (b) GHS 3, p 192. Table 6.5—Classification of mixtures containing specific target organ toxicants (repeated exposure) Cut-off values/concentration limits of ingredients of a mixture classified as a specific target organ toxicant that would trigger classification of the mixture. Item|Ingredient classification|Mixture classification|| ||Category 1|Category 2| 1|Category 1 specific target organ toxicant|Concentration ≥ 10%|1.0% ≤ concentration < 10%| 2|Category 2 specific target organ toxicant||Concentration ≥ 10%| Notes— 1 The concentration limits in table 6.5 apply to solids and liquids (w/w units) and gases (v/v units). 2 Table 6.5 replaces table 3.9.3 in— (a) the GHS, p 207; and (b) GHS 3, p 203. Schedule 7—Safety data sheets Regulations 330 and 331 1—Safety data sheets—content (1) A safety data sheet for a hazardous chemical must— (a) contain unit measures expressed in Australian legal units of measurement under the National Measurement Act 1960 of the Commonwealth; and (b) state the date it was last reviewed or, if it has not been reviewed, the date it was prepared; and (c) state the name, and the Australian address and business telephone number of— (i) the manufacturer; or (ii) the importer; and (d) state an Australian business telephone number from which information about the chemical can be obtained in an emergency; and (e) be in English. (2) A safety data sheet for a hazardous chemical must state the following information about the chemical: (a) Section 1: Identification; (b) Section 2: Hazard(s) identification; (c) Section 3: Composition and information on ingredients, in accordance with Schedule 8; (d) Section 4: First aid measures; (e) Section 5: Firefighting measures; (f) Section 6: Accidental release measures; (g) Section 7: Handling and storage; (h) Section 8: Exposure controls and personal protection; (i) Section 9: Physical and chemical properties; (j) Section 10: Stability and reactivity; (k) Section 11: Toxicological information; (l) Section 12: Ecological information; (m) Section 13: Disposal considerations; (n) Section 14: Transport information; (o) Section 15: Regulatory information; (p) Section 16: Any other relevant information. (3) The safety data sheet must use the headings and be set out in the order set out in subclause (2). (4) The safety data sheet must be in English. Note— Regulations 330 and 331 provide that clause 2 will apply instead of clause 1 in certain cases. 2—Safety data sheets—research chemical, waste product or sample for analysis For the purposes of regulation 331, a safety data sheet for a hazardous chemical that is a research chemical, waste product or sample for analysis must— (a) be in English; and (b) state the name, Australian address and business telephone number of— (i) the manufacturer; or (ii) the importer; and (c) state that full identification or hazard information is not available for the chemical, and in the absence of full identification or hazard information, a precautionary approach must be taken by a person using, handling or storing the chemical; and (d) state the chemical identity or structure of the chemical or chemical composition, as far as is reasonably practicable; and (e) state any known or suspected hazards; and (f) state any precautions that a person using, handling or storing the chemical must take to the extent that the precautions have been identified. Schedule 8—Disclosure of ingredients in safety data sheet 1—Purpose of this Schedule This Schedule sets out the way in which the ingredients of a hazardous chemical must be disclosed in Section 3 of a safety data sheet prepared under these regulations. Note— See clause 1(2)(c) of Schedule 7. 2—Identity of ingredients to be disclosed (1) This clause applies if an ingredient in a hazardous chemical causes the correct classification of the chemical to include a hazard class and hazard category referred to in table 8.1. (2) The identity of the ingredient must be disclosed in English on the label and safety data sheet of the hazardous chemical. Table 8.1 Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|GHS hazard class|GHS hazard category| 1|Acute toxicity—oral|Category 1| ||Category 2| ||Category 3| ||Category 4| 2|Acute toxicity—dermal|Category 1| ||Category 2| ||Category 3| ||Category 4| 3|Acute toxicity—inhalation|Category 1| ||Category 2| ||Category 3| ||Category 4| 4|Respiratory sensitiser|Category 1| 5|Skin sensitiser|Category 1| 6|Mutagenicity|Category 1A| ||Category 1B| ||Category 2| 7|Carcinogenicity|Category 1A| ||Category 1B| ||Category 2| 8|Toxic to reproduction|Category 1A| ||Category 1B| ||Category 2| ||Additional category for effects on or via lactation| 9|Target organ toxicity—single exposure|Category 1| ||Category 2| ||Category 3| 10|Target organ toxicity—repeat exposure|Category 1| ||Category 2| 11|Aspiration hazards|Category 1| 12|Skin corrosion or irritation|Category 1A| ||Category 1B| ||Category 1C| ||Category 2| 13|Serious eye damage or eye irritation|Category 1| ||Category 2| 3—Generic names used to disclose identity of ingredients (1) This clause applies if an ingredient of a hazardous chemical must be disclosed under clause 2. (2) The ingredient— (a) may be disclosed by its generic name if— (i) the ingredient causes the correct classification of the hazardous chemical to include a hazard class and hazard category referred to in table 8.2; and (ii) the ingredient does not cause the correct classification of the hazardous chemical to include any other hazard class and hazard category in table 8.1; and (iii) the identity of the ingredient is commercially confidential; and (iv) an exposure standard for the ingredient has not been established; or (b) in any other case—must be disclosed by its chemical identity. Table 8.2 Column 1|Column 2| Item|Hazard class and hazard category| 1|Acute toxicity (category 4)| 2|Aspiration hazard (category 1)| 3|Serious eye damage or eye irritation (category 2)| 4|Skin corrosion or irritation (category 2)| 5|Specific target organ toxicity (single exposure) (category 3)| 4—Disclosing proportions of ingredients (1) This clause applies if an ingredient of a hazardous chemical must be disclosed under clause 2. (2) The proportion of the ingredient to the hazardous chemical must be disclosed— (a) if the exact proportion of the ingredient is not commercially confidential—as the exact proportion of the chemical, expressed as a percentage by weight or volume; or (b) if the exact proportion of the ingredient is commercially confidential—as 1 of the following ranges within which the exact proportion fits, expressed as a percentage by weight or volume: (i) <10%; (ii) 10 – 30%; (iii) 30 – 60%; (iv) > 60%; (v) a range that is narrower than the range set out in subparagraph (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv). Schedule 9—Classification, packaging and labelling requirements Regulations 329, 334 and 335 Part 1—Correct classification 1—Correct classification of a substance, mixture or article (1) A substance or mixture (other than a research chemical, sample for analysis or waste product) is correctly classified if a determination is made about whether the substance or mixture can be classified into a hazard class under the GHS including a mixture classification referred to in Schedule 6. Note— The Schedule 6 tables replace some tables in the GHS. (2) A substance or mixture that is a research chemical, sample for analysis or waste product is correctly classified if, so far as is reasonably practicable having regard to the known or suspected properties of the substance or mixture— (a) a determination is made about the identity of the substance or mixture; and (b) a determination is made about whether the substance or mixture can be classified into a hazard class under the GHS. (3) An article that contains a substance or mixture that may be released during the use, handling or storage of the article is correctly classified if the substance or mixture is correctly classified. Part 2—Correct packing 2—Correctly packing hazardous chemicals (1) A hazardous chemical is correctly packed if the chemical is packed in a container that— (a) is in sound condition; and (b) will safely contain the chemical for the time the chemical is likely to be packed; and (c) is made of material that is compatible with, and will not be adversely affected by, the chemical; and (d) does not usually contain food or beverages and cannot be mistakenly identified as containing food or beverages. (2) Despite subclause (1), a hazardous chemical supplied by a retailer to a person, in a container provided by the person, is only correctly packed if— (a) for a hazardous chemical with a classification that includes flammable gases or gases under pressure—the container— (i) has a capacity less than the capacity stated for a hazardous chemical stored in bulk; and (ii) complies with the ADG Code; and (b) in any other case—the container— (i) has a capacity that does not exceed the capacity stated for a hazardous chemical stored in bulk; and (ii) is clearly marked with the product identifier or chemical identity; and (iii) complies with paragraphs (a) to (d) of subclause (1). Part 3—Correct labelling Note— More than 1 clause of this Part may apply to a hazardous chemical depending on the nature of the hazardous chemical, its container and other matters. 3—Labelling hazardous chemicals—general (1) A hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if the chemical is packed in a container that has a label in English including the following: (a) the product identifier; (b) the name, and the Australian address and business telephone number of— (i) the manufacturer; or (ii) the importer; (c) for each ingredient of the chemical—the identity and proportion disclosed in accordance with Schedule 8; (d) any hazard pictogram consistent with the correct classification of the chemical; (e) any hazard statement, signal word and precautionary statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical; (f) any information about the hazards, first aid and emergency procedures relevant to the chemical, not otherwise included in the hazard statement or precautionary statement referred to in paragraph (e); (g) if the chemical has an expiry date—the expiry date. (2) The label may include any other information that does not contradict or cast doubt on the matters referred to in subclause (1). (3) This clause is subject to clauses 4 to 10 of this Schedule. 4—Labelling hazardous chemicals—small container (1) This clause applies if a hazardous chemical is packed in a container that is too small for a label attached to it to include all the information referred to in clause 3(1). (2) The hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if the chemical is packed in a container that has a label in English including the following: (a) the product identifier; (b) the name, and the Australian address and business telephone number of— (i) the manufacturer; or (ii) the importer; (c) a hazard pictogram or hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical; (d) any other information referred to in clause 3(1) that it is reasonably practicable to include. 5—Labelling hazardous chemicals—research chemicals or samples for analysis (1) This clause applies to a hazardous chemical that is a research chemical or sample for analysis. (2) The hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if the chemical is packed in a container that has a label in English including the following: (a) the product identifier; (b) a hazard pictogram or hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical. 6—Labelling hazardous chemicals—decanted or transferred chemicals (1) This clause applies if— (a) a hazardous chemical is decanted or transferred from the container in which it is packed; and (b) either— (i) will not be used immediately; or (ii) is supplied to someone else. (2) The hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if the chemical is packed in a container that has a label in English including the following: (a) the product identifier; (b) a hazard pictogram or hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical. 7—Labelling hazardous chemicals—known hazards (1) This clause applies to a hazardous chemical if— (a) the chemical is not being supplied to another workplace; and (b) the hazards relating to the chemical are known to the workers involved in using, handling or storing the chemical. (2) The hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if the chemical is packed in a container that has a label in English including the following: (a) the product identifier; (b) a hazard pictogram or hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical. 8—Labelling hazardous chemicals—waste products (1) This clause applies to a waste product if it is reasonably likely that the waste product is a hazardous chemical. (2) The waste product is correctly labelled if it is packed in a container that has a label in English including the following for the hazardous chemical: (a) the product identifier; (b) the name, and the Australian address and business telephone number of— (i) the manufacturer; or (ii) the importer; (c) a hazard pictogram and hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical. 9—Labelling hazardous chemicals—explosives (1) This clause applies to a hazardous chemical that may be classified in the explosives hazard class. (2) The hazardous chemical is correctly labelled if the chemical is packed in a container that has a label in English that— (a) complies with the Australian Code for the Transport of Explosives by Road and Rail; and (b) includes the following: (i) the proper shipping name and UN number; (ii) any hazard pictogram consistent with the correct classification of the chemical in relation to health hazards; (iii) any hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical in relation to health hazards; (iv) any precautionary statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical in relation to health hazards. 10—Labelling hazardous chemicals—agricultural and veterinary chemicals (1) A hazardous chemical that is an agricultural or veterinary chemical is correctly labelled if— (a) the chemical is labelled in accordance with the requirements of the Australian Pesticides and Veterinary Medicines Authority; and (b) the label is in English and includes the following: (i) any hazard statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical; (ii) any precautionary statement consistent with the correct classification of the chemical. (2) In this clause— agricultural or veterinary chemical means an agricultural chemical product or veterinary chemical product under the Agricultural and Veterinary Chemicals Code Act 1994 of the Commonwealth. Schedule 10—Prohibited carcinogens, restricted carcinogens and restricted hazardous chemicals Regulations 340 and 380—384 Note— The prohibition of the use of carcinogens listed in table 10.1, column 2 and the restriction of the use of carcinogens listed in table 10.2, column 2 apply to the pure substance and where the substance is present in a mixture at a concentration greater than 0.1% unless otherwise specified. Table 10.1—Prohibited carcinogens Column 1|Column 2| Item|Prohibited carcinogen [CAS number]| 1|2-Acetylaminofluorene [53-96-3]| 2|Aflatoxins| 3|4-Aminodiphenyl [92-67-1]| 4|Benzidine [92-87-5] and its salts (including benzidine dihydrochloride [531-85-1])| 5|bis(Chloromethyl) ether [542-88-1]| 6|Chloromethyl methyl ether [107-30-2] (technical grade which contains bis(chloromethyl) ether)| 7|4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene [60-11-7] (Dimethyl Yellow)| 8|2-Naphthylamine [91-59-8] and its salts| 9|4-Nitrodiphenyl [92-93-3]| Table 10.2—Restricted carcinogens Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|Restricted carcinogen [CAS number]|Restricted use| 1|Acrylonitrile [107-13-1]|All| 2|Benzene [71-43-2]|All uses involving benzene as a feedstock containing more than 50% of benzene by volume Genuine research or analysis| 3|Cyclophosphamide [50-18-0]|When used in preparation for therapeutic use in hospitals and oncological treatment facilities, and in manufacturing operations Genuine research or analysis| 4|3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine [91-94-1] and its salts (including 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine dihydrochloride [612-83-9])|All| 5|Diethyl sulfate [64-67-5]|All| 6|Dimethyl sulfate [77-78-1]|All| 7|Ethylene dibromide [106-93-4]|When used as a fumigant Genuine research or analysis| 8|4,4'-Methylene bis(2-chloroaniline) [101-14-4] MOCA|All| 9|3-Propiolactone [57-57-8] (Beta-propiolactone)|All| 10|o-Toluidine [95-53-4] and o-Toluidine hydrochloride [636-21-5]|All| 11|Vinyl chloride monomer [75-01-4]|All| Table 10.3—Restricted hazardous chemicals Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|Restricted hazardous chemical|Restricted use| 1|Antimony and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as antimony| 2|Arsenic and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as arsenic For spray painting| 3|Benzene (benzol), if the substance contains more than 1% by volume|For spray painting| 4|Beryllium and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as beryllium| 5|Cadmium and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as cadmium| 6|Carbon disulphide (carbon bisulphide)|For spray painting| 7|Chromate|For wet abrasive blasting| 8|Chromium and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.5% (except as specified for wet blasting) as chromium| 9|Cobalt and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as cobalt| 10|Free silica (crystalline silicon dioxide)|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 1%| 11|Lead and compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as lead or which would expose the operator to levels in excess of those set in the regulations covering lead| 12|Lead carbonate|For spray painting| 13|Methanol (methyl alcohol), if the substance contains more than 1% by volume|For spray painting| 14|Nickel and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as nickel| 15|Nitrates|For wet abrasive blasting| 16|Nitrites|For wet abrasive blasting| 17|Radioactive substance of any kind where the level of radiation exceeds 1 Bq/g|For abrasive blasting, so far as is reasonably practicable| 18|Tetrachloroethane|For spray painting| 19|Tetrachloromethane (carbon tetrachloride)|For spray painting| 20|Tin and its compounds|For abrasive blasting at a concentration of greater than 0.1% as tin| 21|Tributyl tin|For spray painting| Note— Regulation 377 deals with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs). Schedule 11—Placard and manifest quantities Regulations 347—350, 361, 390 and 391 1—Determination of classification of flammable liquids For the purposes of this table, if a flammable liquid category 4 is used, handled or stored in the same spill compound as one or more flammable liquids of categories 1, 2 or 3, the total quantity of flammable liquids categories 1, 2 or 3 must be determined as if the flammable liquid category 4 had the same classification as the flammable liquid in the spill compound with the lowest flash point. Table 11.1 Column 1|Column 2|Column 3|Column 4|Column 5| Item|Description of hazardous chemical||Placard quantity|Manifest quantity| 1|Flammable gases|Category 1A, category 1B or any combination of categories 1A and 1B|200L|5 000L| 2|Gases under pressure|With acute toxicity, categories 1, 2, 3 or 4|50L|500L| 3||With skin corrosion categories 1A, 1B or 1C|50L|500L| 4||Not specified elsewhere in this Table|1 000L|10 000L| 5|Flammable liquids|Category 1|50L|500L| 6||Category 2|250L|2 500L| 7||Category 3|1 000L|10 000L| 8||Any combination of chemicals from Items 5 to 7 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000L|10 000L| 9||Category 4|10 000L|100 000L| 10|Self‑reactive substances|Type A|5kg or 5L|50kg or 50L| 11||Type B|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 12||Type C to F|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 13|Flammable solids|Category 1|250kg|2 500kg| 14||Category 2|1 000kg|10 000kg| 15||Any combination of chemicals from Items 11 to 14 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 16|Pyrophoric liquids and pyrophoric solids|Category 1|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 17|Self‑heating substances and mixtures|Category 1|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 18||Category 2|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 19||Any combination of chemicals from Items 16 to 18 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 20|Substances which in contact with water emit flammable gas|Category 1|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 21||Category 2|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 22||Category 3|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 23||Any combination of chemicals from Items 20 to 22 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 24|Oxidising liquids and oxidising solids|Category 1|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 25||Category 2|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 26||Category 3|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 27||Any combination of chemicals from Items 24 to 26 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 28|Organic peroxides|Type A|5kg or 5L|50kg or 50L| 29||Type B|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 30||Type C to F|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 31||Any combination of chemicals from Items 29 and 30 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 32|Acute toxicity|Category 1|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 33||Category 2|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 34||Category 3|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 35||Any combination of chemicals from Items 32 to 34 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 36|Skin corrosion|Category 1A|50kg or 50L|500kg or 500L| 37||Category 1B|250kg or 250L|2 500kg or 2 500L| 38||Category 1C|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 39|Corrosive to metals|Category 1|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 40||Any combination of chemicals from Items 36 to 39 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|1 000kg or 1 000L|10 000kg or 10 000L| 41|Unstable explosives||5kg or 5L|50kg or 50L| 42|Unstable chemicals|Any combination of chemicals from Items 10, 28 and 41 where none of the items exceeds the quantities in columns 4 or 5 on their own|5kg or 5L|50kg or 50L| 43|Aerosols|Category 1, category 2, category 3 or any combination of categories 1, 2 and 3|5 000L|10 000L| Note— 1 In item 2, Gases under pressure with acute toxicity, category 4 only applies up to a LC50 of 5000 ppmV. This is equivalent to dangerous goods of Division 2.3. 2 Item 43 includes flammable aerosols. Example— For placarding and manifest purposes, a spill compound containing 1 000L of flammable liquid category 1 and 1 000L of flammable liquid category 4 is considered to contain 2 000L of flammable liquid category 1. Schedule 12—Manifest requirements Regulation 347(2) 1—Manifest—general information The manifest of hazardous chemicals must include— (a) the name of the person conducting the business or undertaking; and (b) the address of the workplace; and (c) the date the manifest was last amended or, if it has not been amended, the date it was prepared; and (d) business hours and after hours telephone numbers for at least 2 persons who may be contacted if there is a notifiable incident at the workplace. 2—Manifest—bulk storage and containers (1) This clause applies if a hazardous chemical is stored at a workplace in bulk or in a container. (2) For each hazardous chemical stored in bulk other than in a container, the manifest of hazardous chemicals must include— (a) the name of the chemical; and (b) the quantity of the chemical stored. (3) For each container storing the hazardous chemical, the manifest of hazardous chemicals must include— (a) the identification number or code of the container; and (b) the type and capacity of the container; and (c) for a fixed vertical tank used to store fire risk hazardous chemicals—the diameter of the tank. 3—Manifest—identification of hazardous chemical The manifest of hazardous chemicals must include— (a) for a hazardous chemical, other than a flammable liquid category 4, unstable explosive, organic peroxide type A or self‑reactive substance type A— (i) the proper shipping name as stated in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code for the chemical; and (ii) the UN number as stated in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code for the hazardous chemical; and (iii) the class and division of the hazardous chemical as stated in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code; and (b) for a flammable liquid category 4— (i) the product identifier; and (ii) the words 'combustible liquid'; and (c) for an unstable explosive, organic peroxide type A or self‑reactive substance type A— (i) the name of the hazardous chemical stated in the ADG Code, Appendix A; and (ii) the words 'goods too dangerous to be transported'. 4—Manifest—storage area for packaged hazardous chemicals (1) This clause applies if— (a) a storage area— (i) contains, or is likely to contain, a packaged hazardous chemical, or a hazardous chemical in an IBC; and (ii) is required under these regulations to have a placard; and (b) the hazardous chemicals are dangerous goods under the ADG Code. (2) The manifest of hazardous chemicals must include— (a) the identification number or code for the storage area; and (b) for hazardous chemicals with an assigned class specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code—the largest quantity of each class of hazardous chemicals likely to be kept in the storage area; and (c) for the specified hazardous chemicals that are likely to be kept in the storage area— (i) the proper shipping name of the hazardous chemical as specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code; and (ii) the class to which the hazardous chemical is assigned as specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code; and (iii) the largest quantity of the hazardous chemical likely to be kept in the storage area; and (d) for an unstable explosive, organic peroxide type A or self‑reactive substance type A that is likely to be kept in the storage area— (i) the name of the hazardous chemical; and (ii) the words 'goods too dangerous to be transported'; and (iii) the largest quantity of the hazardous chemical likely to be kept in the storage area; and (e) for hazardous chemicals with an assigned class specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code—the class to which the hazardous chemical is assigned; and (f) for flammable liquids category 4—the words 'combustible liquid'. (3) In this clause— specified hazardous chemicals means any of the following: (a) flammable liquid category 1; (b) self-reactive substances type B; (c) substances which in contact with water emit flammable gas category 1; (d) pyrophoric liquids category 1; (e) pyrophoric solids category 1; (f) organic peroxides type B; (g) acute toxicity category 1; (h) oxidising solids category 1; (i) oxidising liquids category 1; (j) skin corrosion category 1A; (k) gases under pressure with acute toxicity categories 1, 2 or 3 or skin corrosion categories 1A, 1B or 1C. 5—Manifest—hazardous chemicals being manufactured For each area in which hazardous chemicals are manufactured, the manifest must include— (a) the identification number or code of the area; and (b) a description of the hazardous chemicals manufactured in the area; and (c) the average and largest quantity of each hazardous chemical likely to be manufactured in the area. 6—Manifest—hazardous chemicals in transit (1) This clause applies to hazardous chemicals at a workplace if the hazardous chemicals are— (a) dangerous goods under the ADG Code in transit at the workplace; and (b) accompanied by dangerous goods transport documents (the transport documents) in relation to the hazardous chemicals that comply with the ADG Code. (2) The person conducting a business or undertaking at the workplace is taken to comply with clauses 4 and 5 in relation to the hazardous chemicals if the manifest includes a compilation of the transport documents. 7—Manifest—plan of workplace The manifest of hazardous chemicals at a workplace must include a scale plan of the workplace that— (a) shows the location of— (i) containers and other storage of hazardous chemicals in bulk; and (ii) storage areas for packaged hazardous chemicals and IBCs; and (iii) each area where hazardous chemicals are manufactured or generated; and (b) includes a description in words of the location of— (i) the things referred to in paragraph (a); and (ii) hazardous chemicals in transit; and (c) provides the identification number or code, and a legend for the identification numbers and codes, for the things referred to in paragraph (a); and (d) shows the location of— (i) the main entrance and other places of entry to and exit from the workplace; and (ii) essential site services, including fire services and isolation points for fuel and power; and (iii) all drains on the site; and (iv) the manifest; and (e) includes the direction of true north; and (f) describes the nature of the occupancy of adjoining sites or premises. Schedule 13—Placard requirements Regulations 349(2) and 350(2) 1—Displaying placards (1) This clause applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must display a placard at the workplace in relation to a hazardous chemical. (2) The person must ensure that the placard is— (a) clearly legible by persons approaching the placard; and (b) separate from any other sign or writing that contradicts, qualifies or distracts attention from the placard; and (c) if a placard quantity of the hazardous chemical is contained in a building— (i) located as close as is reasonably practicable to the main entrance of the building; and (ii) located at the entrance to each room or walled section of the building in which the hazardous chemical is used, handled or stored; and (d) if the hazardous chemical is contained in a container or outside storage area—located next to the container or outside storage area; and (e) for a placard to which clause 3 applies—located at each entrance to the workplace where an emergency service organisation may enter the workplace; and (f) for a placard to which clause 4 applies—located on or next to each container or storage area in which the hazardous chemicals are stored; and (g) for a placard to which clause 6 applies—located at each entrance to a storage area in which the hazardous chemicals are stored. 2—Maintaining placards A person who is required to display a placard must— (a) amend the placard as soon as practicable if— (i) the type or quantity of hazardous chemical used, handled or stored at the workplace changes; and (ii) the change requires the information displayed on the placard to be amended; and (b) ensure that the placard is— (i) kept clean; and (ii) maintained in good repair; and (iii) not covered or obscured. 3—Outer warning placards—requirements (1) This clause applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must display an outer warning placard at the workplace in relation to a hazardous chemical. Note— Regulation 349 sets out when an outer warning placard is required, and states that it is not required for retail fuel outlets. (2) The outer warning placard must— (a) comply with the form shown in figure 13.1; and (b) display the word 'HAZCHEM' in red letters on a white or silver background. (3) In this clause— red means the colour 'signal red' in accordance with AS 2700S–2011 (R13) (Colour standards for general purposes—signal red). 4—Placards for particular hazardous chemicals stored in bulk (1) This clause applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must display a placard at the workplace in relation to the storage in bulk of any of the following hazardous chemicals: (a) gases under pressure, including flammable gases and flammable aerosols; (b) flammable liquids category 1, 2 or 3; (c) flammable solids category 1 or 2, self‑reactive substances types B to F, self‑heating substances category 1 or 2 or substances that, in contact with water, emit flammable gases; (d) organic peroxides types B to F, oxidising solids and oxidising liquids category 1, 2 or 3; (e) acute toxicity category 1, 2 or 3; (f) skin corrosion category 1A, 1B or 1C and corrosive to metals category 1. (2) The placard must— (a) comply with the template in figure 13.2; and (b) subject to subclause (4)(b) and (c), have dimensions not less than those shown in figure 13.2. (3) The placard must include the following in figure 13.2 for the hazardous chemical: (a) in space (p)—the proper shipping name for the hazardous chemical as specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code; (b) in space (q)—the UN Number for the hazardous chemical as specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code; (c) in space (r)—the Hazchem Code for the hazardous chemical as specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code; (d) in space (s)—the class label and subsidiary risk label for the hazardous chemical as specified in Table 3.2.3 of the ADG Code. (4) For subclause (3)(a) to (c), the numerals and letters used for showing the proper shipping name, UN number and Hazchem Code must be— (a) black on a white background, unless a letter of the Hazchem Code is white on a black background; and (b) if the proper shipping name requires a single line only—at least 100mm high; and (c) if the proper shipping name requires 2 lines—at least 50mm high. (5) For subclause (3)(d)— (a) the class label and subsidiary risk label (if any) must have the form and colouring stated in the ADG Code for the hazardous chemical; and (b) the class label must have— (i) if there is a subsidiary risk label—sides not less than 200mm; or (ii) in any other case—sides of not less than 250mm; and (c) if there is a subsidiary risk label—the subsidiary risk label must have sides of not less than 150mm; and (d) if there are 2 or more subsidiary risk labels—the width of the right hand part of the placard may be extended. 5—Placards for unstable explosives, organic peroxides type A or self-reactive substances type A stored in bulk (1) This clause applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must display a placard at the workplace in relation to unstable explosives, organic peroxides type A or self‑reactive substances type A that are stored in bulk. (2) The placard must— (a) comply with the form in figure 13.2; and (b) have dimensions not less than those shown in figure 13.2. (3) The placard must include the following, as indicated in figure 13.2, for the hazardous chemical: (a) in space (p)—the name stated in the ADG Code for the hazardous chemical; (b) in space (q)—the space left blank; (c) in space (r)—the space left blank; (d) in space (s)—the label in figure 13.3. (4) For subclause (3)(a), the letters used for showing the name must be— (a) black on a white background; and (b) if the name requires a single line only—at least 100mm high; and (c) if the name requires 2 lines—at least 50mm high. (5) For subclause (3)(d), the label must have sides of not less than 250mm. 6—Placards for packaged Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals (other than flammable liquids category 4) and IBCs (1) This clause applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must display a placard at the workplace in relation to the storage of— (a) packaged Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals (other than flammable liquids category 4); or (b) a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical in an IBC. (2) The placard must— (a) be in the form shown in figure 13.4; and (b) be of sufficient size to accommodate the labels to be included on the placard; and (c) have a white or silver background; and (d) include each required class label— (i) in the form and colouring stated in the ADG Code for the hazardous chemical; and (ii) with sides not less than 100mm. (3) The placard must include the following: (a) for a Schedule 11 hazardous chemical (other than unstable explosive, organic peroxide type A, self‑reactive substance type A) present in a storage area at the workplace—the class label as stated in the ADG Code for each category of hazardous chemicals present in at least the placard quantity; or (b) for a flammable liquid category 4 stored with flammable liquids in a storage area at the workplace—a class 3 class label as stated in the ADG Code; or (c) for an unstable explosive, organic peroxide type A or self‑reactive substance type A—the label in figure 13.3. (4) If hazardous chemicals in an IBC at the workplace are Schedule 11 hazardous chemicals intended for transport, and not intended for use at the workplace— (a) the IBC must display a placard in accordance with the ADG Code; and (b) the storage area at the workplace must display a placard in accordance with this clause. 7—Placards for flammable liquids category 4 packaged or in bulk (1) This clause applies if a person conducting a business or undertaking at a workplace must display a placard at the workplace in relation to the storage of— (a) a packaged flammable liquid category 4; or (b) a flammable liquid category 4 in bulk. (2) The placard must— (a) be in the form shown in figure 13.5; and (b) have dimensions not less than those shown in figure 13.5; and (c) have black letters on a white or silver background. Schedule 14—Requirements for health monitoring Regulations 368, 370 and 406 Table 14.1—Hazardous chemicals (other than lead) requiring health monitoring Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|Hazardous chemical|Type of health monitoring| 1|Acrylonitrile|Demographic, medical and occupational history Records of personal exposure Physical examination| 2|Arsenic (inorganic)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Records of personal exposure Physical examination with emphasis on the peripheral nervous system and skin Urinary inorganic arsenic| 3|Benzene|Demographic, medical and occupational history Records of personal exposure Physical examination Baseline blood sample for haematological profile| 4|Cadmium|Demographic, medical and occupational history Records of personal exposure Physical examination with emphasis on the respiratory system Standard respiratory questionnaire to be completed Standardised respiratory function tests including for example, FEV1, FVC and FEV1/FVC Urinary cadmium and β2-microglobulin Health advice, including counselling on the effect of smoking on cadmium exposure| 5|Chromium (inorganic)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination with emphasis on the respiratory system and skin Weekly skin inspection of hands and forearms by a competent person| 6|Creosote|Demographic, medical and occupational history Health advice, including recognition of photosensitivity and skin changes Physical examination with emphasis on the neurological system and skin, noting any abnormal lesions and evidence of skin sensitisation Records of personal exposure, including photosensitivity| 7|Crystalline silica|Demographic, medical and occupational history Records of personal exposure Standardised respiratory questionnaire to be completed Standardised respiratory function test, for example, FEV1, FVC and FEV1/FVC Chest X-ray full size PA view| 8|Isocyanates|Demographic, medical and occupational history Completion of a standardised respiratory questionnaire Physical examination of the respiratory system and skin Standardised respiratory function tests, for example, FEV1, FVC and FEV1/FVC| 9|Mercury (inorganic)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination with emphasis on dermatological, gastrointestinal, neurological and renal systems Urinary inorganic mercury| 10|4,4' Methylene bis (2-chloroaniline) (MOCA)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination Urinary total MOCA Dipstick analysis of urine for haematuria Urine cytology| 11|Organophosphate pesticides|Demographic, medical and occupational history including pattern of use Physical examination Baseline estimation of red cell and plasma cholinesterase activity levels by the Ellman or equivalent method Estimation of red cell and plasma cholinesterase activity towards the end of the working day on which organophosphate pesticides have been used| 12|Pentachlorophenol (PCP)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Records of personal exposure Physical examination with emphasis on the skin, noting any abnormal lesions or effects of irritancy Urinary total pentachlorophenol Dipstick urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria| 13|Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination Records of personal exposure, including photosensitivity Health advice, including recognition of photosensitivity and skin changes| 14|Thallium|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination Urinary thallium| 15|Vinyl chloride|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination Records of personal exposure| Table 14.2—Lead requiring health monitoring Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|Lead|Type of health monitoring| 1|Lead (inorganic)|Demographic, medical and occupational history Physical examination Biological monitoring| Schedule 15—Hazardous chemicals at major hazard facilities (and their threshold quantity) Chapter 9 1—Definitions In this Schedule— Class has the same meaning as in the ADG Code; Division has the same meaning as in the ADG Code; Packing Group has the same meaning as in the ADG Code; subsidiary risk has the same meaning as in the ADG Code. 2—Relevant hazardous chemicals The hazardous chemicals that characterise a workplace as a facility for the purposes of these regulations are the chemicals specifically referred to in table 15.1 and chemicals that belong to the types, classes and categories referred to in table 15.2. 3—Threshold quantity of one hazardous chemical (1) In relation to each hazardous chemical referred to in clause 2, column 3 of tables 15.1 and 15.2 provides a quantity that is described as the threshold quantity of that chemical. (2) If a hazardous chemical is referred to in table 15.1, the threshold quantity of the chemical is that described in table 15.1, whether or not the chemical also belongs to a type, class or category referred to in table 15.2. (3) If a hazardous chemical is not referred to in table 15.1, and the chemical belongs to a type, class or category referred to in table 15.2, the threshold quantity of that chemical is that of the type, class or category to which it belongs. (4) If a hazardous chemical is not referred to in table 15.1, and the chemical appears to belong to more than 1 of the types, classes or categories referred to in table 15.2, the threshold quantity of that chemical is that of the relevant type, class or category which has the lower or lowest threshold quantity. 4—Threshold quantity of more than 1 hazardous chemical If there is more than 1 hazardous chemical, a threshold quantity of chemicals exists where, if a number of chemicals are present, the result of the following aggregation formula exceeds 1: where— (a) x, y, [....] and n are the hazardous chemicals present or likely to be present; (b) qx, qy, [....] and qn is the total quantity of hazardous chemicals x, y, [....] and n present or likely to be present, other than— (i) a hazardous chemical that is present or likely to be present in an isolated quantity less than 2% of its threshold quantity; (ii) hazardous chemicals that are solely the subject of intermediate temporary storage, while in transit by road or rail (unless it is reasonably foreseeable that, despite the transitory nature of the storage, hazardous chemicals are or are likely to be present frequently or in significant quantities); (c) Qx, Qy, [....] and Qn is the individual threshold quantity for each hazardous chemical x, y, [....] and n; (d) a hazardous chemical is present or likely to be present in an isolated quantity, for the purposes of paragraph (b)(i), if its location at the facility is such that it cannot, on its own, act as an initiator of a major incident. 5—How table 15.1 must be used (1) The UN number listed in table 15.1 against the named hazardous chemical does not restrict the meaning of the name, which also applies to hazardous chemicals that fall outside the UN number. Examples— 1 The hazardous chemicals are too dangerous to be transported. 2 The hazardous chemicals are part of mixtures covered by a different UN number. (2) Any hazardous chemicals that are covered by the listed UN numbers must be included in the quantity of the chemical named. 6—How table 15.2 must be used (1) The quantities specified for explosives in table 15.2 relate to the weight of explosive exclusive of packagings, casings and other nonexplosive components. (2) If explosives of different hazard divisions are present in the same area or storage, all of the explosives must, before table 15.2 is applied, be classified in accordance with the following table: Div.|1.1|1.2|1.3|1.4|1.5|1.6| 1.1|1.1|1.1|1.1|1.1|1.1|1.1| 1.2|1.1|1.2|1.1|1.2|1.1|1.2| 1.3|1.1|1.1|1.3|1.3|1.1|1.3| 1.4|1.1|1.2|1.3|1.4|1.5|1.6| 1.5|1.1|1.1|1.1|1.5|1.5|1.5| 1.6|1.1|1.2|1.3|1.6|1.5|1.6| Table 15.1 |Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|Hazardous chemical|UN Nos included under name|Threshold quantity (tonnes)| 1|ACETONE CYANOHYDRIN|1541|20| 2|ACETYLENE|1001|50| 3|ACROLEIN|1092|200| 4|ACRYLONITRILE|1093|200| 5|ALLYL ALCOHOL|1098|20| 6|ALLYLAMINE|2334|200| 7|AMMONIA, ANHYDROUS, LIQUEFIED or AMMONIA SOLUTIONS, relative density less than 0.880 at 15°C in water, with more than 50% ammonia|1005|200| 8|AMMONIUM NITRATE FERTILISERS|2067 2068 2069 2070|5 000| 9|AMMONIUM NITRATE, with not more than 0.2% combustible substances, including any organic substance calculated as carbon, to the exclusion of any other added substance|1942|2 500| 10|ARSENIC PENTOXIDE, Arsenic (V) Acid and other salts|1559|10| 11|ARSENIC TRIOXIDE, Arsenious (III) Acid and other salts|1561|0.1| 12|ARSINE|2188|1.0| 13|BROMINE or BROMINE SOLUTIONS|1744|100| 14|CARBON DISULFIDE|1131|200| 15|CHLORINE|1017|25| 16|DIOXINS|—|0.1| 17|ETHYL NITRATE|—|50| 18|ETHYLENE DIBROMIDE|1605|50| 19|ETHYLENE OXIDE|1040|50| 20|ETHYLENEIMINE|1185|50| 21|FLUORINE|1045|25| 22|FORMALDEHYDE (greater than 90%)|—|50| 23|HYDROFLUORIC ACID SOLUTION (greater than 50%)|1790|50| 24|HYDROGEN|1049|50| 25|HYDROGEN CHLORIDE||| |—Anhydrous —Refrigerated Liquid|1050 2186|250 250| 26|HYDROGEN CYANIDE|1051 1614|20| 27|HYDROGEN FLUORIDE|1052|50| 28|HYDROGEN SULFIDE|1053|50| 29|LP GASES|1011 1012 1075 1077 1978|200| 30|METHANE or NATURAL GAS|1971 1972|200| 31|METHYL BROMIDE|1062|200| 32|METHYL ISOCYANATE|2480|0.15| 33|OXIDES OF NITROGEN, including nitrous oxide, nitrogen dioxide and nitrogen trioxide|1067 1070 1660 1975 2201 2421|50| 34|OXYGEN|1072 1073|2 000| 35|PHOSGENE|1076|0.75| 36|PROPYLENE OXIDE|1280|50| 37|PROPYLENEIMINE|1921|200| 38|SODIUM CHLORATE, solid|1495|200| 39|SULFUR DICHLORIDE|1828|1| 40|SULFUR DIOXIDE, LIQUEFIED|1079|200| 41|SULFURIC ANHYDRIDE (Alt. SULFUR TRIOXIDE)|1829|75| 42|TITANIUM TETRACHLORIDE|1838|500| 43|TOLUENE DIISOCYANATE|2078|200| Table 15.2 |Column 1|Column 2|Column 3| Item|Hazardous chemical|Description|Threshold quantity (tonnes)| 1|Explosive materials|Explosive of Division 1.1A|10| ||All other explosives of Division 1.1|50| ||Explosive of Division 1.2|200| ||Explosive of Division 1.3|200| 2|Compressed and liquefied gases|Compressed or liquefied gases of Division 2.1 or Subsidiary Risk 2.1|200| ||Liquefied gases of Subsidiary Risk 5|200| ||Compressed or liquefied gases that meet the criteria for Very Toxic in table 15.3|20| ||Compressed or liquefied gases that meet the criteria for Toxic in table 15.3|200| 3|Flammable materials|Liquids that meet the criteria for Class 3 Packing Group I Materials (except for crude oil in remote locations)|200| ||Crude oil in remote locations that meet the criteria for Class 3 Packing Group I|2 000| ||Liquids that meet the criteria for Class 3 Packing Group II or III|50 000| ||Liquids with flash points <61°C kept above their boiling points at ambient conditions|200| ||Materials that meet the criteria for Division 4.1 Packing Group I|200| ||Spontaneously combustible materials that meet the criteria for Division 4.2 Packing Group I or II|200| ||Materials that liberate flammable gases or react violently on contact with water which meet the criteria for Division 4.3 Packing Group I or II|200| ||Materials that belong to Classes 3 or 8 Packing Group I or II which have Hazchem codes of 4WE (materials that react violently with water)|500| 4|Oxidising materials|Oxidising material listed in Appendix A to the ADG Code|50| ||Oxidising materials that meet the criteria for Division 5.1 Packing Group I or II|200| 5|Peroxides|Peroxides that are listed in Appendix A to the ADG Code|50| ||Organic Peroxides that meet the criteria for Division 5.2|200| 6|Toxic solids and liquids|Materials that meet the criteria for Very Toxic in table 15.3 except materials that are classified as Infectious Substances (Division 6.2) or as Radioactive (Class 7)|20| ||Materials that meet the criteria for Toxic in table 15.3|200| Table 15.3—Criteria for toxicity Description|Oral Toxicity1 LD50 (mg/kg)|Dermal Toxicity2 LD50 (mg/kg)|Inhalation Toxicity3 LC50 (mg/L)| Very Toxic|LD50 ≤ 5|LD50 ≤ 40|LC50 ≤ 0.5| Toxic|5< LD50 ≤ 50|40 < LD50 ≤ 200|0.5 < LC50 ≤ 2.0| Key— 1 In rats 2 In rabbits 3 4 hours in rats Schedule 16—Matters to be included in emergency plan for major hazard facility Regulation 557 1|Site and hazard detail|| |1.1|The location of the facility, including its street address and the nearest intersection (if any). Note— Sufficient detail must be provided to enable a person not familiar with the site to find it.| |1.2|A map—| || (a) showing the site of the major hazard facility; and| || (b) showing land use and occupancy in the surrounding area, and any other closely located major hazard facilities and hazardous chemical storage sites; and| || (c) identifying all potentially hazardous inventories in the area that are known to the operator and the location of all staging points for emergency service organisations.| |1.3|An inventory of all hazardous chemicals present, or likely to be present at the facility, and their location.| |1.4|A brief description of the nature of the facility and its operation.| |1.5|The maximum number of persons, including workers, likely to be present at the facility on a normal working day.| |1.6|The emergency planning assumptions, including emergency measures planned for identified incidents and likely areas affected.| |1.7|The protective resources available to control an incident.| |1.8|The emergency response procedures.| |1.9|The infrastructure (on‑site and off‑site) likely to be affected by a major incident.| 2|Command structure and site personnel|| |2.1|The command philosophy and structure to be activated in an emergency, so that it is clear what actions will be taken, who will take these actions and how, when and where they will be taken.| |2.2|Details of the person who can clarify the content of the emergency plan if necessary.| |2.3|The contact details of, and the means of contacting, the persons at the facility responsible for liaising with emergency service organisations.| |2.4|A list of 24 hour emergency contacts.| |2.5|Arrangements for assisting emergency service organisations and nearby facilities with control actions taken in the surrounding area.| 3|Notifications|| |3.1|In the event of the occurrence of a major incident or an event that could reasonably be expected to lead to a major incident, procedures for notifying the emergency service organisations with which the emergency plan was prepared under regulation 557 (or, if the facility is also a mine, under regulation 664).| |3.2|After a major incident has occurred, procedures for providing the local community and the local authority for the local authority area in which the facility and the surrounding area are located with information about the major incident under regulation 573.| |3.3|On-site and off-site warning systems.| |3.4|Contact details for emergency service organisations and other support services that can assist in providing resources and implementing evacuation plans in the event of a major incident.| |3.5|On-site communication systems.| 4|Resources and equipment|| |4.1|On-site emergency resources, including emergency equipment, personnel, gas detectors, wind velocity detectors, sand, lime, neutralising agents, absorbents, spill bins and decontamination equipment.| |4.2|Off-site emergency resources, including arrangements for obtaining additional external resources (specific to the likely major incidents) to assist the control of major incidents and major incident hazards.| 5|Procedures|| |5.1|Procedures for the safe evacuation of, and accounting for, all people on site.| |5.2|Procedures and control points for utilities, including gas, water and electricity.| |5.3|Procedures for the control of any incident involving Schedule 15 chemicals.| |5.4|Procedures for decontamination following an incident involving Schedule 15 chemicals.| Schedule 17—Additional matters to be included in safety management system of major hazard facility Regulation 558 1|Safety policy and safety objectives|| |1.1|A description of the means by which the operator's safety policy and specific safety objectives are to be communicated to all persons who are to participate in the implementation of the safety management system.| |1.2|The safety policy must include an express commitment to ongoing improvement of all aspects of the safety management system.| 2|Organisation and personnel|| |2.1|The identification (according to position description and location) of the persons who are to participate in the implementation of the safety management system, and a description of the command structure in which these persons work and of the specific tasks and responsibilities allocated to them.| |2.2|A description of the means of ensuring that these persons have the knowledge and skills necessary to enable them to undertake their allocated tasks and discharge their allocated responsibilities, and that they retain such knowledge and skills.| 3|Operational controls|| |3.1|A description of the procedures and instructions for—| || (a) the safe operation of plant (including as to inspection and maintenance); and| || (b) the mechanical integrity of plant; and| || (c) plant processes; and| || (d) the control of abnormal operations and emergency shut down or decommissioning.| |3.2|Provision of adequate means of achieving isolation of the major hazard facility or any part of the major hazard facility in the event of an emergency.| |3.3|Provision of adequate means of gaining access for service and maintenance of the major hazard facility or any part of the major hazard facility.| |3.4|A description of the roles of persons and of the interfaces between persons and plant.| |3.5|Provision for alarm systems.| 4|Duties of operators|| |4.1|A description of the means by which the operator proposes to comply with the Act and with Division 3 of Chapter 9 Part 3, Chapter 9 Part 4 and Chapter 9 Part 5 of these regulations.| |4.2|In relation to each part of the documented safety management system that describes the means of compliance with a provision of Chapter 9, an annotation or cross-reference identifying the specific provision being complied with.| 5|Management of change|| ||A description of the procedures for planning modifications to major hazard facilities.| 6|Principles and standards|| |6.1|A statement of the principles, especially the design principles and engineering standards, being used to ensure the safe operation of the major hazard facility.| |6.2|A description of any technical standards, whether published or proprietary, being relied on in relation to such principles and standards.| 7|Performance monitoring|| |7.1|Performance standards for measuring the effectiveness of the safety management system, that—| || (a) relate to all aspects of the safety management system; and| || (b) are sufficiently detailed to ensure that the ability of the operator to ensure the effectiveness of all aspects of the safety management system is apparent from the documentation; and| || (c) include steps to be taken to continually improve all aspects of the safety management system.| |7.2|A description of the way in which these performance standards are to be met.| |7.3|Performance indicators for the effectiveness of control measures implemented, including—| || (a) tests of the effectiveness of the control measures; and| || (b) indicators of the failure of any control measure; and| || (c) actions to be taken in reporting any such failure; and| || (d) other corrective actions to be taken in the event of any such failure.| 8|Audit|| ||Provision for the auditing of performance against the performance standards, including the methods, frequency and results of the audit process.| Schedule 18—Additional matters to be included in safety case for a major hazard facility Regulation 561 Part 1|Facility description|| 1|The facility|| |1.1|A brief description of the nature of the facility and its operation, including a description of on-site activities and processes that involve or will involve Schedule 15 chemicals.| |1.2|A description of the Schedule 15 chemicals and any other hazardous chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility, including—| || (a) their identification by name and by any other means necessary for a clear identification; and| || (b) the quantity present or likely to be present at the major hazard facility; and| || (c) their physical, chemical and toxicological characteristics, and any other hazardous characteristics, both immediate and delayed; and| || (d) their physical and chemical behaviour under normal conditions of use or under foreseeable abnormal conditions.| |1.3|A description of the chemical and physical processes associated with any Schedule 15 chemicals present or likely to be present at the facility, including—| || (a) the main units of plant used in those processes; and| || (b) a process flow drawing, or set of flow drawings, describing the processes.| |1.4|A drawing of the major hazard facility's general layout, containing the location of—| || (a) the main process units; and| || (b) the main storage areas; and| || (c) major incident hazards and major incident initiators.| |1.5|In relation to proposed changes at the major hazard facility for which no new control measures are implemented—| || (a) a description of any proposed changes to the major hazard facility that would— (i) alter the production capacity or profile of the major hazard facility; or (ii) involve the deletion, addition or modification of any processes; and| || (b) a statement as to how existing control measures and WHS management systems are capable of maintaining the safe operation of the major hazard facility.| 2|The surrounding area|| |2.1|A detailed scale plan of the facility and its surrounding area showing—| || (a) the location of the facility within the surrounding area; and| || (b) topographical information; and| || (c) land use, occupancy and activities in the surrounding area and any other closely located major hazard facilities and hazardous chemical storage sites; and| || (d) the location of any identified external conditions (including other major hazard facilities or other facilities that could affect the safety of the major hazard facility).| |2.2|Graphically presented demographic information for the local community, including surrounding land uses permitted by the local authority.| |2.3|Meteorological data relevant to the estimation of the effects of any major incident.| Part 2|Safety information|| 3|Control measures to limit the consequences of major incidents|| |3.1|A detailed description of—| || (a) the instrumentation and other equipment installed in the facility and the processes and procedures in place that are the control measures to be implemented by the operator; and| || (b) the critical operating parameters for those control measures; and| || (c) key personnel and resources (internal and external) available to intervene in the event of any failure of a control measure, whether or not that failure results in a major incident; and| || (d) a summary of the emergency plan, including specific information about how the plan can be expected to limit the consequences of a major incident; and| || (e) the means of ensuring that there is at all times in place a command structure for the major hazard facility that applies in the event of an emergency, and that this command structure has been communicated to workers throughout the major hazard facility.| |3.2|In item 3.1—| ||critical operating parameters means the upper or lower performance limits of any equipment, process or procedure, compliance with which is necessary to avoid a major incident;| ||failure of a control measure means—| || (a) if the control measure is a positive action or event—the non‑occurrence or the defective occurrence of that action or event; or| || (b) if the control measure consists of a limitation on an operational activity, process or procedure—the breach of that limitation.| 4|Performance monitoring|| ||A detailed description of the performance standards and performance indicators required by item 7 of Schedule 17 to be included in the safety management system.| 5|Safety management system|| |5.1|At all points in the safety case where the matter addressed is covered by the safety management system, a clear reference to the relevant part of the documented safety management system.| |5.2|A description of those parts of the documented safety management system that address the ongoing effective implementation and ongoing review and revision of the safety management system.| 6|Safety and reliability of facility structures and plant|| ||A description of the steps taken to ensure that safety and reliability are incorporated into the design and construction of all aspects of the major hazard facility itself, whether the operator is directly engaged in the design and construction or has engaged another person to carry out the design and construction.| 7|Major incident history|| ||A summary of the major incidents that have occurred at the major hazard facility over the previous 5 years.| Schedule 19—Principal mining hazard management plans—additional matters to be considered Regulation 628 1—Ground or strata instability The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks of ground or strata instability: (a) the local geological structure; (b) the local hydrogeological environment, including surface and ground water; (c) the geotechnical characteristics of the rocks and soil, including the effects of time, oxidation and water on rock support and stability; (d) any natural or induced seismic activity; (e) the location and loadings from existing or proposed mine infrastructure such as waste dumps, tailings storage, haul roads and mine facilities; (f) any previously excavated or abandoned workings; (g) the proposed and existing mining operations, including the nature and number of excavations, the number and size of permanent or temporary voids or openings, backfilling of mined areas and stopes, abutments, periodic weighting and windblast; (h) the proposed blasting activities, including airblast. 2—Inundation and inrush The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks of inundation and inrush: (a) the potential sources of inundation, including extreme weather, overflow or failure of levies and dam structures, failure or blocking of flow channels (either regular, overflow or emergency); (b) the potential sources of inrush including current, disused or abandoned mine workings along the same seam or across strata, surface water bodies, backfill operations, highly permeable aquifers, bore-holes, faults or other geological weaknesses; (c) the potential for the accumulation of water, gas or other substances or materials that could liquefy or flow into other workings or locations; (d) the magnitude of all potential sources and maximum flow rates; (e) the worst possible health and safety consequences of each potential source, including the accuracy of plans of other workings, variation in rock properties and geological weaknesses. 3—Mine shafts and winding operations The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks associated with mine shafts and winding operations: (a) the stability and integrity of the shaft; (b) the potential for fires in underground operations, the shaft or winder areas; (c) the potential for any unintended or uncontrolled movement of the conveyances within the shaft; (d) the potential for a detached conveyance to fall down the shaft; (e) the potential for fall of persons, equipment, materials or support structure into or within, the shaft; (f) the potential for failure of, or damage to, health and safety related equipment and controls, including the following: (i) ropes bearing the weight of the shaft conveyance; (ii) controls and limiting devices to prevent overwind, overrun, overspeed and the exceeding of other selected limits; (iii) equipment and controls to detect, prevent or cause the winder to stop in the event of slack rope, drum slip or tail rope malfunctions; (iv) braking systems including emergency brakes and systems for preventing free‑fall of a conveyance; (v) warning systems for any emergency in the shaft; (vi) communication systems; (g) the potential for injury to persons in a conveyance from material being carried in the conveyance or falling from another conveyance; (h) the need to enable persons to escape from a stalled conveyance; (i) the competency of the operator of the winder. 4—Roads and other vehicle operating areas The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks associated with roads and other vehicle operating areas: (a) mobile plant characteristics, including stopping distances, manoeuvrability, operating speeds, driver position, driver line of sight and remote control mobile plant; (b) the effect on road conditions of expected environmental conditions during operating periods (including time of day, weather, temperature and visibility); (c) the impact of road design and characteristics, including grade, camber, surface, radius of curves and intersections; (d) the impact of mine design, including banks and steep drops adjacent to vehicle operating areas; (e) the volume and speed of traffic and the potential for interactions between mobile plant with different operating characteristics, including heavy and light vehicles; (f) the potential for interactions between mobile plant and pedestrians, including consideration of park up areas and driver access; (g) the potential for interaction between mining mobile plant and public traffic; (h) the potential for interaction between mobile plant and fixed structures, including overhead and underground power lines, tunnel walls and roofs. 5—Air quality, dust and other airborne contaminants The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks associated with air quality, airborne dust and other airborne contaminants: (a) the types of dust and other chemical and biological contaminants likely to be in the air from both natural sources, including naturally occurring asbestos, and introduced sources; (b) the levels of oxygen, dust and other contaminants in the natural or supplied air of a mine; (c) the temperature and humidity of the air; (d) the length of exposure, having regard to extended shifts and reduced recovery periods. 6—Fire and explosion The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks of fire and explosion: (a) the potential sources of flammable, combustible and explosive substances and materials, both natural and introduced, including gas, dust, fuels, solvents and timber; (b) the potential sources of ignition, fire or explosion, including plant, electricity, static electricity, spontaneous combustion, lightning, hot work and other work practices; (c) the potential for propagation of fire or explosion to other parts of the mine. 7—Gas outbursts The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks of gas outbursts: (a) the potential for gas release into the working area of a mine from both natural and introduced sources in a concentration that could lead to fire, explosion or asphyxiation; (b) the potential for accumulation of gases in working areas and abandoned areas of the mine; (c) the nature of the gas that could be released; (d) the gas levels in the material being mined; (e) gas seam pressures. 8—Spontaneous combustion The following matters must be considered in developing the control measures to manage the risks of spontaneous combustion: (a) the potential for spontaneous combustion to occur in the material being mined, including by— (i) evaluating the history of the mine in relation to spontaneous combustion; and (ii) evaluating any adjacent or previous mining operations in the same seam; and (iii) the conduct of scientific testing; (b) mine ventilation practices; (c) the design of the mine; (d) the impact of gases generated by spontaneous combustion on mine environmental conditions. Schedule 20—Prohibited uses in mines Regulation 632 Column 1 Item|Column 2 Prohibited use| Internal combustion engine (other than a compression ignition engine)|All uses underground| Compressed natural gas|In an underground mine in an internal or external combustion engine| Hydrogen|In an underground mine in an internal or external combustion engine| Liquid petroleum gas|In an underground mine in an internal or external combustion engine| Petrol and fuel|In an underground mine in an internal or external combustion engine unless suitable for safe use underground Example— Diesel fuel| Ignition sources Examples— Cigarettes, matches, lighters, naked flame, naked light, firearms|At any mine, while carrying, handling or using any explosive or initiating system or within 8 metres of any explosive or initiating system| |At a work area at a mine, where solvents are used At a work area at a mine, where flammable vapours are present At any mine, in a shaft conveyance At any mine, in a refuge chamber during an emergency| Explosives, detonators and exploders (excluding explosive power tools)|All uses at any mine, unless for the purpose of shotfiring| Schedule 21—Concentration levels for atmospheric contaminants Note— Schedule 21 appears in some corresponding WHS laws but does not apply in this State because there is no underground coal mining activity. Schedule 22—Matters to be included in emergency plan for a mine Regulation 664 1—Site and hazard detail 1.1 The location of the mine, including its street address and the nearest intersection (if any). Note— Sufficient detail must be provided to enable a person not familiar with the site to find it. 1.2 The current mine survey plan required under Chapter 10 Part 5. 1.3 A brief description of the nature of the mine and mining operations. 1.4 The maximum number of persons, including workers, likely to be present at the mine on a normal working day. 1.5 The emergency planning assumptions for different emergencies, and likely areas affected. 1.6 The protective resources available to control an incident that could result in an emergency. 1.7 The emergency response procedures, including procedures for isolating areas of the mine in an emergency. 1.8 The infrastructure likely to be affected by an emergency. 2—Command structure and site personnel 2.1 The command philosophy and structure to be activated in an emergency, so that it is clear what actions will be taken, who will take these actions and how, when and where they will be taken. 2.2 Details of the person who can clarify the content of the emergency plan if necessary. 2.3 The contact details of, and the way to contact, the persons at the mine responsible for liaising with emergency services. 2.4 A list of 24 hour emergency contacts. 2.5 Arrangements for assisting emergency services. 3—Notifications 3.1 In the event of the occurrence of a notifiable incident or an event that could reasonably be expected to lead to a notifiable incident, procedures for notifying— (a) any person whose health or safety may be affected, even if— (i) the person is located underground; or (ii) there is no electrical power that can be used for the notification; and (b) the emergency services in circumstances where emergency services are required. 3.2 On-site and off-site warning systems. 3.3 Contact details for emergency services and other support services that can assist in providing resources and implementing evacuation plans in an emergency. 3.4 On-site communication systems. 4—Resources and equipment 4.1 On-site emergency resources, including— (a) first aid equipment, facilities, services and personnel; and (b) emergency equipment and personnel; and (c) gas detectors, wind velocity detectors, sand, lime, neutralising agents, absorbents, spill bins and decontamination equipment. 4.2 Off-site emergency resources, including arrangements for obtaining additional external resources (specific to the likely incidents), including mines rescue services, as necessary. 4.3 Arrangements for mines rescue that state the following: (a) the minimum mines rescue training to be provided; (b) any arrangements for the mine operator and mine operators of mines in the vicinity to assist each other in an emergency; (c) how inertisation equipment is to be used; (d) the procedures to be followed in carrying out mines rescue. 4.4 For an underground mine, a means of communication between the surface of the mine and any underground area of the mine where persons are located, that is effective even if there is no electrical connection between the surface and the relevant underground area. 5—Procedures 5.1 Procedures for the safe evacuation of, and accounting for, all persons at the mine. 5.2 Procedures and control points for utilities, including gas, water and electricity. 5.3 Procedures in the event of the ventilation system at the mine failing totally or for more than 30 minutes. Schedule 23—Information to be included in notification of mining incident Regulation 675V 1—Person injured 1.1 The name, date of birth and gender of any person who has suffered an illness or injury as a result of the incident. 1.2 If a person who has suffered an illness or injury as a result of the incident is a worker, the following information: (a) the worker's occupation; (b) the worker's usual start and finish time, and start time on the day of the incident; (c) the number of hours worked immediately before the incident; (d) the name of the person conducting the business or undertaking in which the person works; (e) the nature of the engagement of the worker. 1.3 If the worker is self-employed, the name of the business or undertaking. 1.4 The industry in which the business or undertaking is primarily conducted. 2—Incident 2.1 When the incident occurred, including— (a) the date of the incident; (b) the time of the incident; (c) in the case of an illness, the date on which the illness was first reported by or on behalf of the person suffering the illness. 2.2 A description of the incident, including— (a) what each affected person was doing just before the incident; and (b) a description of all substances, including hazardous chemicals, and all plant and processes involved in the incident; and (c) the classification of— (i) the mechanism of the incident; and (ii) the agency of the illness or injury (that is, how the incident caused the illness or injury); and (iii) the nature and bodily location of the illness or injury. 2.3 In item 2.2(c)— classification means the code assigned by the Types of Occurrence Classification System published by the National Health and Safety Committee, as in force from time to time. 2.4 Item 2.2(c) applies only in relation to an incident that occurs after 1 January 2015. 3—Consequences of incident 3.1 Whether or not the incident has resulted in any of the following: (a) a fatality; (b) permanent incapacity; (c) the inability of a worker to work for 1 day or more, not including the incident day, whether the worker is rostered on that day or not; (d) the worker carrying out restricted work; (e) medical treatment. 3.2 An indication of whether the incident is likely to result in any of the circumstances referred to in item 3.1. 3.3 An indication of whether the incident has the potential to result in any of the circumstances referred to in item 3.1. Schedule 24—Information to be included in mine quarterly report Regulation 675W 1—Meaning of incident In this Schedule— incident means— (a) a notifiable incident; or (b) an incident within the meaning of regulation 675V. 2—Mine holder The name of the mine holder for the mine. 3—Mine operator The name of the mine operator of the mine. 4—The mine The location of the mine. 5—Commodity processed A description of the primary commodity processed at the mine site during the reporting period. 6—Number of workers The average number of workers who worked at the mine site during the reporting period. 7—Number of hours worked The total number of hours (including additional shifts and overtime) worked at the mine during the reporting period. 8—Number of incidents The total number of incidents occurring during the reporting period. 9—Number of lost time injuries The total number of incidents that resulted in the inability of a worker to work for 1 day or more (not including the incident day) during the reporting period. 10—Days lost from work The total number of days (not including the incident day) lost from work by workers during the reporting period as a result of incidents. 11—Number of restricted duty days The total number of days on which workers carried out restricted duties during the reporting period as a result of incidents. 12—Number of workers placed on restricted duties The total number of workers placed on restricted duties during the reporting period as a result of incidents. 13—Number of medical treatment injuries 13.1 The total number of injuries and illnesses of workers arising from incidents that required medical treatment during the reporting period but did not result in the inability of a worker to work for 1 day or more (not including the incident day). 13.2 In item 13.1— medical treatment means the management or care of a patient including— (a) the suturing of a wound; (b) the treatment of fractures; (c) the treatment of bruises by drainage of blood; (d) the treatment of second and third degree burns, but does not include diagnostic procedures, observation, counselling, first aid or therapeutic measures taken solely for preventative purposes. 14—Number of deaths The total number of deaths that occurred during the reporting period as a result of incidents. 15—Other information The information set out in Schedule 23 in relation to each incident, if that information has not already been provided to the regulator. Legislative history Notes • This version is comprised of the following: Chapter 1|1.9.2024| Chapter 2|1.1.2014| Chapter 3|25.12.2023| Chapter 4|1.7.2024| Chapter 5|25.12.2023| Chapter 6|16.7.2015| Chapter 7|1.1.2021| Chapter 8|1.1.2021| Chapter 8A|1.9.2024| Chapter 9|1.7.2017| Chapter 10|1.1.2021| Chapter 11|1.7.2024| Schedule 2|1.7.2020| Schedule 3|1.1.2017| Schedule 4|1.1.2017| Schedule 5|1.1.2021| Schedule 6|1.1.2021| Schedule 7|1.1.2021| Schedule 8|1.1.2021| Schedule 9|1.1.2014| Schedule 10|1.1.2014| Schedule 11|1.1.2021| Schedule 12|1.1.2014| Schedule 13|1.9.2023| Schedule 14|1.1.2014| Schedule 15|11.9.2014| Schedule 16|1.1.2014| Schedule 17|1.1.2014| Schedule 18|1.1.2014| Schedule 19|1.1.2014| Schedule 20|1.1.2014| Schedule 21|1.1.2014| Schedule 22|1.1.2014| Schedule 23|1.1.2014| Schedule 24|1.1.2014| • Please note—References in the legislation to other legislation or instruments or to titles of bodies or offices are not automatically updated as part of the program for the revision and publication of legislation and therefore may be obsolete. • Earlier versions of these regulations (historical versions) are listed at the end of the legislative history. • For further information relating to the Act and subordinate legislation made under the Act see the Index of South Australian Statutes or www.legislation.sa.gov.au. Legislation revoked by principal regulations The Work Health and Safety Regulations 2012 revoked the following: Occupational Health, Safety and Welfare Regulations 2010 Principal regulations and variations New entries appear in bold. Year|No|Reference|Commencement| 2012|268|Gazette 20.12.2012 p5765|1.1.2013 except rr 168—170—1.7.2013 and except rr 58, 164, 172—175, 176(2) & (3), 177—182, 298—303, 307—315, 340, 361, 376, 380—382, 390, 391, 402—418, 431—434—1.1.2014 and except rr 429 & 430—1.7.2014 and except r 488—1.1.2015 and except r 348 which was deleted by 235/2015 without coming into operation and except r 347 (as varied by 279/2013 r 4 and further varied by 239/2014 r 4(2))—1.1.2016: r 2| 2013|141|Gazette 6.6.2013 p2360|1.7.2013: r 2| 2013|279|Gazette 12.12.2013 p4655|12.12.2013 except rr 5—45, 48, 50—56—1.1.2014: r 2| 2014|137|Gazette 19.6.2014 p2661|1.7.2014: r 2| 2014|239|Gazette 11.9.2014 p4342|11.9.2014: r 2| 2014|279|Gazette 11.12.2014 p6735|11.12.2014: r 2| 2015|32|Gazette 19.3.2015 p1246|1.7.2015: r 2| 2015|52|Gazette 28.5.2015 p2303|1.7.2015: r 2| 2015|160|Gazette 18.6.2015 p2811|1.7.2015: r 2| 2015|183|Gazette 16.7.2015 p3455|16.7.2015: r 2| 2015|235|Gazette 19.11.2015 p4983|19.11.2015: r 2| 2016|38|Gazette 26.5.2016 p1908|1.7.2016: r 2| 2016|140|Gazette 23.6.2016 p2370|1.7.2016: r 2| 2016|285|Gazette 15.12.2016 p5010|1.1.2017: r 2| 2017|35|Gazette 16.5.2017 p1222|1.7.2017: r 2| 2017|58|Gazette 16.5.2017 p1295|1.7.2017: r 2| 2017|153|Gazette 22.6.2017 p2408|1.7.2017: r 2| 2018|71|Gazette 14.6.2018 p2156|1.7.2018: r 2| 2018|165|Gazette 21.6.2018 p2450|1.7.2018: r 2| 2018|252|Gazette 20.12.2018 p4358|20.12.2018: r 2| 2019|21|Gazette 14.3.2019 p858|1.7.2019: r 2| 2019|151|Gazette 13.6.2019 p2101|1.7.2019: r 2| 2019|156|Gazette 13.6.2019 p2144|1.7.2019: r 2| 2020|49|Gazette 30.4.2020 p839|1.7.2020: r 2| 2020|141|Gazette 4.6.2020 p2984|1.7.2020: r 2| 2020|276|Gazette 24.9.2020 p4668|24.9.2020: r 2| 2020|295|Gazette 19.11.2020 p5080|1.1.2021: r 2| 2020|307|Gazette 3.12.2020 p5453|1.1.2021: r 2| 2021|75|Gazette 10.6.2021 p2143|1.7.2021: r 2| 2022|48|Gazette 23.6.2022 p1933|1.7.2022: r 2| 2023|52|Gazette 26.5.2023 p1387|1.7.2023: r 2| 2023|83|Gazette 3.8.2023 p2606|1.9.2023: r 2| 2023|92|Gazette 25.8.2023 p3116|25.12.2023: r 2| 2024|42|Gazette 6.6.2024 p1334|1.7.2024: r 2| 2024|59|Gazette 27.6.2024 p1938|1.7.2024: r 2| 2024|60|Gazette 27.6.2024 p1951|1.9.2024: r 2| Provisions varied New entries appear in bold. Entries that relate to provisions that have been deleted appear in italics. Provision|How varied|Commencement| Ch 1||| Ch 1 Pt 1||| r 2||| r 2(3)|(i) deleted by 279/2013 r 4(1)|12.12.2013| r 2(5)|varied by 279/2013 r 4(2)|12.12.2013| |varied by 239/2014 r 4(1)|11.9.2014| r 2(6)|inserted by 239/2014 r 4(2)|11.9.2014| |varied by 235/2015 r 4|19.11.2015| r 2|omitted under Legislation Revision and Publication Act 2002|1.7.2016| r 5||| ADG Code|varied by 285/2016 r 4(1)|1.1.2017| Agvet Code|inserted by 285/2016 r 4(2)|1.1.2017| boiler|varied by 279/2013 r 5(1)|1.1.2014| |amended by 83/2023 r 3|1.9.2023| C1 combustible liquid|inserted by 285/2016 r 4(3)|1.1.2017| combustible dust|substituted by 279/2013 r 5(2)|1.1.2014| combustible liquid|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(2)|1.1.2014| competent person|varied by 279/2013 r 5(3)|1.1.2014| concrete placement unit with delivery boom|deleted by 279/2013 r 5(4)|1.1.2014| concrete placing boom|varied by 285/2016 r 4(4)|1.1.2017| controlled|inserted by 59/2024 r 3(1)|1.7.2024| |substituted by 60/2024 r 3(1)|1.9.2024| crystalline silica|inserted by 60/2024 r 3(2)|1.9.2024| crystalline silica substance (CSS)|inserted by 60/2024 r 3(2)|1.9.2024| engineered stone|inserted by 59/2024 r 3(2)|1.7.2024| exploration site|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(5)|1.1.2014| exposure standard|varied by 279/2013 r 5(6)|1.1.2014| extraction site|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(7)|1.1.2014| fitness criteria|varied by 307/2020 r 4(1)|1.1.2021| gantry crane|varied by 279/2013 r 5(8)|1.1.2014| GHS|varied by 307/2020 r 4(2)|1.1.2021| GHS 3|inserted by 307/2020 r 4(3)|1.1.2021| hazardous chemical|substituted by 307/2020 r 4(4)|1.1.2021| high risk|inserted by 60/2024 r 3(3)|1.9.2024| incidental diving work|(c) deleted by 279/2013 r 5(9)|1.1.2014| inflatable device (continuously blown)|substituted by 279/2013 r 5(10)|1.1.2014| inrush hazard|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(10)|1.1.2014| licence holder|varied by 307/2020 r 4(5)|1.1.2021| mine|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(11)|1.1.2014| mine holder|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(11)|1.1.2014| mine operator|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(11)|1.1.2014| mineral|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(11)|1.1.2014| mining operations|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(11)|1.1.2014| passenger ropeway|varied by 279/2013 r 5(12), (13)|1.1.2014| porcelain product|inserted by 59/2024 r 3(3)|1.7.2024| powered mobile plant|examples deleted by 279/2013 r 5(14)|1.1.2014| pressure piping|varied by 285/2016 r 4(5)|1.1.2017| primary emergency service organisation|deleted by 279/2013 r 5(15)|1.1.2014| primary emergency service organisations|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(15)|1.1.2014| principal mining hazard|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(16)|1.1.2014| processing|inserted by 59/2024 r 3(4)|1.7.2024| |substituted by 60/2024 r 3(4)|1.9.2024| psychosocial hazard|inserted by 92/2023 r 3|25.12.2023| psychosocial risk|inserted by 92/2023 r 3|25.12.2023| relevant fee|varied by 141/2020 r 4|1.7.2020| rope|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(17)|1.1.2014| shaft|varied by 279/2013 r 5(18)|1.1.2014| silica risk control plan|inserted by 60/2024 r 3(5)|1.9.2024| sintered stone|inserted by 59/2024 r 3(5)|1.7.2024| specified VET course|varied by 279/2013 r 5(19)|1.1.2014| steam turbine|inserted by 285/2016 r 4(6)|1.1.2017| tower crane|varied by 285/2016 r 4(7), (8)|1.1.2017| turbine|deleted by 285/2016 r 4(9)|1.1.2017| winder|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(20)|1.1.2014| Workplace Exposure Standards for Airborne Contaminants|inserted by 279/2013 r 5(21)|1.1.2014| r 15||| note|inserted by 92/2023 r 4|25.12.2023| Ch 2||| Ch 2 Pt 1||| r 20||| r 20(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 6|1.1.2014| Ch 2 Pt 3||| r 24|varied by 279/2013 r 7|1.1.2014| Ch 3||| Ch 3 Pt 2 Div 4||| r 43||| r 43(3)|varied by 279/2013 r 8|1.1.2014| Ch 3 Pt 2 Div 11|inserted by 92/2023 r 5|25.12.2023| Ch 4||| Ch 4 Pt 5||| r 82||| r 82(1a)|r 82(1b) varied and redesignated as r 82(1a) by 279/2013 r 9(1), (2) |1.1.2014| r 82(1b)|r 82(1a) redesignated as r 82(1b) by 279/2013 r 9(2) |1.1.2014| r 82(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 9(3) |1.1.2014| r 82(3)|inserted by 279/2013 r 9(4) |1.1.2014| r 84||| r 84(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 10 |1.1.2014| r 85||| r 85(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 11(1) |1.1.2014| |substituted by 239/2014 r 5|11.9.2014| r 85(2a)|inserted by 239/2014 r 5|11.9.2014| r 85(3)|varied by 279/2013 r 11(2) |1.1.2014| r 85(4)|varied by 279/2013 r 11(3) |1.1.2014| r 91A|inserted by 279/2013 r 12 |1.1.2014| r 96|varied by 285/2016 r 5|1.1.2017| r 98||| r 98(1)|varied by 285/2016 r 6|1.1.2017| r 104||| r 104(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 13(1), (2) |1.1.2014| r 105||| r 105(5)|varied by 58/2017 r 4|1.7.2017| r 106||| r 106(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 14(1) |1.1.2014| r 106(3) and (4)|inserted by 279/2013 r 14(2) |1.1.2014| r 108|substituted by 279/2013 r 15 |1.1.2014| r 109||| r 109(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 16 |1.1.2014| r 127||| r 127(1)|varied by 285/2016 r 7|1.1.2017| Ch 4 Pt 7||| r 144||| r 144(1)||| electrical equipment|amended by 83/2023 r 4|1.9.2023| r 163|amended by 83/2023 r 5|1.9.2023| r 164A|deleted by 285/2016 r 8|1.1.2017| Ch 4 Pt 8||| r 171|substituted by 279/2013 r 17 |1.1.2014| |substituted by 239/2014 r 6|11.9.2014| r 171(3)||| relevant competencies|varied by 307/2020 r 5|1.1.2021| r 171A||| r 171A(1)|r 171A inserted by 279/2013 r 17 |1.1.2014| |r 171A varied and redesignated as r 171A(1) by 239/2014 r 7(1), (2)|11.9.2014| |varied by 307/2020 r 6(1)|1.1.2021| r 171A(2)|inserted by 239/2014 r 7(2)|11.9.2014| |deleted by 307/2020 r 6(2)|1.1.2021| r 172||| r 172(1)|substituted by 279/2013 r 18 |1.1.2014| r 173||| r 173(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 19 |1.1.2014| |substituted by 307/2020 r 7|1.1.2021| r 174|varied by 279/2013 r 20 |1.1.2014| r 183|varied by 307/2020 r 8|1.1.2021| r 184|varied by 307/2020 r 9|1.1.2021| Ch 4 Pt 9|inserted by 83/2023 r 6|1.9.2023| |deleted by 59/2024 r 4|1.7.2024| Ch 5||| Ch 5 Pt 1||| r 206||| r 206(3)|varied by 279/2013 r 21 |1.1.2014| r 221||| r 221(2)||| harness|amended by 83/2023 r 7|1.9.2023| r 223||| r 223(6)|varied by 307/2020 r 10|1.1.2021| Ch 5 Pt 2||| r 235||| r 235(3)|inserted by 279/2013 r 22(1) |1.1.2014| r 235(6)|substituted by 279/2013 r 22(2) |1.1.2014| r 235(7)|deleted by 279/2013 r 22(2) |1.1.2014| r 238||| r 238(1) and (2)|substituted by 279/2013 r 23 |1.1.2014| r 238(3)|inserted by 92/2023 r 6|25.12.2023| r 239||| r 239(1) and (2)|varied by 279/2013 r 24(1), (2) |1.1.2014| r 240||| r 240(1)|varied by 239/2014 r 8(1), (2)|11.9.2014| r 240(2)|varied by 239/2014 r 8(3)|11.9.2014| r 241||| r 241(2)|varied by 239/2014 r 9(1), (2)|11.9.2014| r 241(5)|varied by 279/2013 r 25 |1.1.2014| |varied by 239/2014 r 9(3)|11.9.2014| r 242||| r 242(1)|amended by 92/2023 r 7(1)|25.12.2023| r 242(1a)|inserted by 92/2023 r 7(2)|25.12.2023| r 242(2)|amended by 92/2023 r 7(3)|25.12.2023| r 242(3) and (4)|inserted by 92/2023 r 7(4)|25.12.2023| Ch 5 Pt 3||| r 244||| r 244(3)|inserted by 279/2013 r 26 |1.1.2014| r 252||| r 252(2)|substituted by 239/2014 r 10|11.9.2014| r 252(3)|deleted by 239/2014 r 10|11.9.2014| r 274||| r 274(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 27 |1.1.2014| r 279||| r 279(2)|varied by 239/2014 r 11|11.9.2014| r 280||| r 280(5)|varied by 58/2017 r 5|1.7.2017| r 288||| r 288(1)|varied by 285/2016 r 9|1.1.2017| r 288D|varied by 239/2014 r 12|11.9.2014| Ch 6||| Ch 6 Pt 1||| r 292|varied by 183/2015 r 4|16.7.2015| Ch 7||| Ch 7 Pt 1||| r 328||| r 328(8) before deletion by 285/2016||| combustible liquid|deleted by 279/2013 r 31 |1.1.2014| r 328(8)|deleted by 285/2016 r 10|1.1.2017| r 335||| r 335(2)|varied by 285/2016 r 11(1)|1.1.2017| r 335(3)|varied by 285/2016 r 11(2)|1.1.2017| r 335(7) and (8)|inserted by 285/2016 r 11(3)|1.1.2017| r 338||| r 338(1)|r 338 redesignated as r 338(1) by 307/2020 r 11|1.1.2021| r 338(2)|inserted by 307/2020 r 11|1.1.2021| r 341||| r 341(1)|r 341 redesignated as r 341(1) by 285/2016 r 12|1.1.2017| r 341(2)|inserted by 285/2016 r 12|1.1.2017| |substituted by 307/2020 r 12|1.1.2021| r 342||| r 342(1a)|inserted by 285/2016 r 13(1)|1.1.2017| |substituted by 307/2020 r 13(1)|1.1.2021| r 342(2a)|inserted by 285/2016 r 13(2)|1.1.2017| |substituted by 307/2020 r 13(2)|1.1.2021| r 347||| r 347(3)|varied by 279/2013 r 28 |1.1.2014| note|varied by 239/2014 r 13(1), (2)|11.9.2014| |omitted under Legislation Revision and Publication Act 2002|1.1.2016| r 348 before deletion by 235/2015||| note|varied by 239/2014 r 14(1), (2)|11.9.2014| r 348|deleted by 235/2015 r 5|19.11.2015| r 359||| r 359(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 29 |1.1.2014| r 361||| r 361(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 30 |1.1.2014| Ch 7 Pt 2||| r 394|varied by 21/2019 r 4|1.7.2019| r 407||| r 407(1)|varied by 21/2019 r 5|1.7.2019| r 415||| r 415(1)|varied by 21/2019 r 6|1.7.2019| r 417||| r 417(3)|varied by 21/2019 r 7|1.7.2019| Ch 8||| Ch 8 Pt 3||| r 421||| r 421(1)|r 421 redesignated as r 421(1) by 279/2013 r 32|1.1.2014| r 421(2)|inserted by 279/2013 r 32|1.1.2014| |varied by 239/2014 r 15|11.9.2014| Ch 8 Pt 7||| r 458||| r 458(3)|varied by 239/2014 r 16|11.9.2014| r 459|varied by 285/2016 r 14(1), (2)|1.1.2017| Ch 8 Pt 8||| heading|varied by 285/2016 r 15|1.1.2017| |varied by 307/2020 r 14|1.1.2021| r 475||| r 475(1)|varied by 307/2020 r 15(1)|1.1.2021| r 475(2)|varied by 307/2020 r 15(2)|1.1.2021| r 475(6)|varied by 285/2016 r 16|1.1.2017| note|deleted by 307/2020 r 15(3)|1.1.2021| r 476||| r 476(1)|varied by 307/2020 r 16(1)|1.1.2021| r 476(2)|varied by 307/2020 r 16(2)|1.1.2021| Ch 8A|inserted by 59/2024 r 5|1.7.2024| heading|substituted by 60/2024 r 4|1.9.2024| Ch 8A Pt 1||| rr 529A—529C|substituted by 60/2024 r 5|1.9.2024| rr 529CA—529CE|inserted by 60/2024 r 5|1.9.2024| Ch 8A Pts 4 and 5|deleted by 60/2024 r 6|1.9.2024| Ch 8 Pt 10||| r 489|varied by 307/2020 r 17|1.1.2021| r 491||| r 491(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 33|1.1.2014| r 513||| r 513(1)|varied by 285/2016 r 17|1.1.2017| r 517||| r 517(3)|varied by 279/2013 r 34|1.1.2014| r 519||| r 519(5)|varied by 58/2017 r 6|1.7.2017| Ch 9||| Ch 9 Pt 1||| r 530||| r 530(2)|varied by 285/2016 r 18|1.1.2017| Ch 9 Pt 2||| r 547||| r 547(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 35|1.1.2014| Ch 9 Pt 3||| r 552|varied by 279/2013 r 36|1.1.2014| r 557||| r 557(9)|inserted by 279/2013 r 37|1.1.2014| r 558||| r 558(5)|inserted by 279/2013 r 38|1.1.2014| r 559||| r 559(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 39(1), (2)|1.1.2014| r 559(5) and (6)|inserted by 279/2013 r 39(3)|1.1.2014| Ch 9 Pt 7||| r 598|varied by 279/2013 r 40|1.1.2014| r 599||| r 599(3)|varied by 58/2017 r 7|1.7.2017| Ch 10|substituted by 279/2013 r 41|1.1.2014| r 615A|inserted by 295/2020 r 4|1.1.2021| r 675S||| r 675S(2)|substituted by 276/2020 r 4(1)|24.9.2020| r 675S(5)||| Geocentric Datum of Australia|deleted by 276/2020 r 4(2)|24.9.2020| Geocentric Datum of Australia 1994 or GDA94|inserted by 276/2020 r 4(2)|24.9.2020| Geocentric Datum of Australia 2020 or GDA2020|inserted by 276/2020 r 4(2)|24.9.2020| Ch 11||| Ch 11 Pt 1||| r 676||| r 676(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 42(1), (2)|1.1.2014| |amended by 59/2024 r 6|1.7.2024| r 683||| r 683(1)|varied by 58/2017 r 8(1)|1.7.2017| r 683(2)|varied by 58/2017 r 8(2)|1.7.2017| r 683(3)—(6)|deleted by 58/2017 r 8(3)|1.7.2017| Ch 11 Pt 1A before deletion by 58/2017||| r 683A||| r 683A(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 43|1.1.2014| r 683B||| r 683B(1) and (2)|varied by 279/2013 r 44|1.1.2014| Ch 11 Pt 1A|deleted by 58/2017 r 9|1.7.2017| Ch 11||| Ch 11 Pt 2 Div 1||| r 684||| r 684(4)|amended by 59/2024 r 7|1.7.2024| Ch 11 Pt 2 Div 3A|inserted by 59/2024 r 8|1.7.2024| Ch 11 Pt 2 Div 4||| r 692|amended by 59/2024 r 9|1.7.2024| rr 694 and 695|substituted by 59/2024 r 10|1.7.2024| r 698||| r 698(2)|amended by 59/2024 r 11|1.7.2024| Ch 11 Pt 3||| r 699A|inserted by 279/2013 r 45|1.1.2014| r 702|varied by 239/2014 r 17|11.9.2014| |varied by 32/2015 r 4|1.7.2015| r 704||| r 704(1)|varied by 21/2019 r 8|1.7.2019| r 705|varied by 141/2020 r 5|1.7.2020| r 706||| r 706(1)|varied by 32/2015 r 5(1), (2)|1.7.2015| r 706(3)|substituted by 32/2015 r 5(3)|1.7.2015| r 706(5)|varied by 32/2015 r 5(4)|1.7.2015| r 707||| r 707(1)|varied by 141/2013 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2013| |varied by 137/2014 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2014| |varied by 52/2015 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2015| |varied by 38/2016 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2016| |varied by 35/2017 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2017| |varied by 71/2018 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2018| |varied by 156/2019 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2019| |varied by 49/2020 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2020| |varied by 75/2021 r 4(1), (2)|1.7.2021| |amended by 48/2022 r 3(1), (2)|1.7.2022| |amended by 52/2023 r 3(1), (2)|1.7.2023| |amended by 42/2024 r 3(1), (2)|1.7.2024| r 707(2)|varied by 141/2013 r 4(1)|1.7.2013| |varied by 137/2014 r 4(1)|1.7.2014| |varied by 52/2015 r 4(1), (3)|1.7.2015| |varied by 38/2016 r 4(1)|1.7.2016| |varied by 35/2017 r 4(1)|1.7.2017| |varied by 71/2018 r 4(1)|1.7.2018| |varied by 156/2019 r 4(1)|1.7.2019| |varied by 141/2020 r 4(1)|1.7.2020| |varied by 75/2021 r 4(1)|1.7.2021| |amended by 48/2022 r 3(1)|1.7.2022| |amended by 52/2023 r 3(1)|1.7.2023| |amended by 42/2024 r 3(1)|1.7.2024| Ch 11 Pt 4||| r 720||| r 720(3)|substituted by 239/2014 r 18|11.9.2014| r 723|substituted by 279/2013 r 46|12.12.2013| r 726 before deletion by 307/2020||| r 726(1)|substituted by 279/2014 r 4|11.12.2014| r 726(2)|varied by 279/2013 r 47|12.12.2013| |varied by 239/2014 r 19|11.9.2014| |varied by 285/2016 r 19|1.1.2017| |varied by 252/2018 r 4|20.12.2018| r 726|deleted by 307/2020 r 18|1.1.2021| r 730||| r 730(1) and (2)|varied by 279/2013 r 48|1.1.2014| r 736|varied by 239/2014 r 20|11.9.2014| |(c) deleted by 239/2014 r 20|11.9.2014| r 737|varied by 279/2013 r 49|12.12.2013| |varied by 239/2014 r 21|11.9.2014| r 742|deleted by 58/2017 r 10|1.7.2017| Ch 11 Pt 5|inserted by 59/2024 r 12|1.7.2024| Sch 1|omitted under Legislation Revision and Publication Act 2002|1.7.2013| Sch 2|varied by 141/2020 r 6|1.7.2020| cl 1|substituted by 141/2013 r 5|1.7.2013| |varied by 279/2013 r 50(1), (2)|1.1.2014| |substituted by 137/2014 r 5|1.7.2014| |varied by 239/2014 r 22|11.9.2014| |substituted by 160/2015 r 4|1.7.2015| |substituted by 140/2016 r 4|1.7.2016| |substituted by 153/2017 r 4|1.7.2017| |substituted by 165/2018 r 4|1.7.2018| |substituted by 151/2019 r 4|1.7.2019| |deleted by 141/2020 r 6|1.7.2020| cl 2|deleted by 141/2020 r 6|1.7.2020| Sch 3||| cl 1|varied by 279/2013 r 51(1)—(8)|1.1.2014| |varied by 285/2016 r 20(1)—(3)|1.1.2017| Sch 4||| cl 1|varied by 285/2016 r 21(1)—(3)|1.1.2017| Sch 5||| cl 1|varied by 279/2013 r 52(1), (2)|1.1.2014| |varied by 239/2014 r 23|11.9.2014| |varied by 285/2016 r 22(1)|1.1.2017| |varied by 307/2020 r 19(1)|1.1.2021| cl 2||| cl 2(1)|varied by 279/2013 r 52(3), (4)|1.1.2014| |varied by 307/2020 r 19(2), (3)|1.1.2021| cl 2(2)|varied by 285/2016 r 22(2)|1.1.2017| cl 3|varied by 279/2013 r 52(5)|1.1.2014| |varied by 285/2016 r 22(3)|1.1.2017| |varied by 307/2020 r 19(4)|1.1.2021| cl 4||| cl 4(1)|substituted by 279/2013 r 52(6)|1.1.2014| |varied by 307/2020 r 19(5), (6)|1.1.2021| Sch 6|varied by 307/2020 r 20(1)—(5)|1.1.2021| Sch 7||| cl 1|varied by 307/2020 r 21(1), (2)|1.1.2021| cl 2|varied by 21/2019 r 9|1.7.2019| Sch 8||| cl 2|varied by 307/2020 r 22(1)|1.1.2021| cl 3|varied by 307/2020 r 22(2)|1.1.2021| Sch 10||| Table 10.3|varied by 279/2013 r 53|1.1.2014| Sch 11||| cl 1|varied by 307/2020 r 23|1.1.2021| Sch 13||| cl 3||| cl 3(3)||| red|varied by 285/2016 r 23|1.1.2017| |amended by 83/2023 r 8(1)|1.9.2023| cl 5||| cl 5(3)|amended by 83/2023 r 8(2)|1.9.2023| Sch 15||| cl 1||| LD50 (median lethal dose) for acute oral toxicity|deleted by 239/2014 r 24(1)|11.9.2014| LD50 for acute dermal toxicity|deleted by 239/2014 r 24(1)|11.9.2014| LC50 for acute toxicity on inhalation|deleted by 239/2014 r 24(1)|11.9.2014| cl 6||| Table 15.3|substituted by 239/2014 r 24(2)|11.9.2014| Sch 16|varied by 279/2013 r 54|1.1.2014| Sch 18A before deletion by 58/2017|Sch 19 redesignated as Schedule 18A by 279/2013 r 55|1.1.2014| Sch 18A|deleted by 58/2017 r 11|1.7.2017| Schs 19—24|inserted by 279/2013 r 56|1.1.2014| Historical versions 1.7.2013|| 12.12.2013|| 1.1.2014|| 1.7.2014|| 11.9.2014|| 11.12.2014|| 1.1.2015|| 1.7.2015|| 16.7.2015|| 19.11.2015|| 1.1.2016|| 1.7.2016|| 1.1.2017|| 1.7.2017|| 1.7.2018|| 20.12.2018|| 1.7.2019|| 1.7.2020|| 24.9.2020|| 1.1.2021|| 1.7.2021|| 1.7.2022|| 1.7.2023|| 1.9.2023|| 25.12.2023|| 1.7.2024||